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Diploma Pharmacy 2nd Year, Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) Curriculum. Technical Education Board.

Sample Paper- 2                                                                                                                      D24

PHARMACOLOGY 2nd Year / Pharmacy ER20-21T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 Subject:

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Who is the father of medicine?

• a) Hippocrates b) Galen c) Berg d) Landsteiner

• Q.2 The major side effect of chloramphenicol is?

• a) Nausea b) Bone Marrow Depression c) Vomiting d) Headache

• Q.3 Eno, Gelusil, Digene are which type of drugs?

• a) Anti-histamines b) Anti-depressants c) Antacids d) Diuretics

• Q.4 Example of antiemetic drugs

• a) Ondansetron b) Propanolol c) Hydrochlorthalidone d) Salbutamol

• Q.5 Which anti-epileptic drug is administered by the intranasal route?

• a) Midazolam b) Diazepam c) Clobazam d) Nitrazepam

• Q.6 Which of the following is also known as the Emergency Hormone?

• a) Cortisol b) Adrenaline c) Prolactin d) ADH

• Q.7 An antibiotic drug will be effective against which of the following diseases

• a) Dengue b) Influenza c) Cholera d) Hepatitis

• Q.8 The liver is the major organ for _______ of drugs

• a) Absorption b) Distribution c) Metabolism d) Excretion

• Q.9 The substances produced by or derived from living organisms that are used to kill bacteria or prevent their multiplication is called__________.

• a) Antibiotics b) Hormones c) Antidotes d) Enzymes

• Q.10 Drugs are excreted from the body through _______

• a) Kidney b) Intestines c) Sweat d) All of the above

• Q.11 Nitroglycerine is administered by which route?

• a) By parenteral route b) By sublingual route c) By inhalation d) By insertion

• Q.12 Drugs used to destroy and expel worms are known as_______.

• a) Antibiotics b) Anti-inflammatory c) Anti-helminthics d) Anti-pruritics

• Q.13 Drugs which dilate the blood vessels and used to lower blood pressure are known as ________. a) Vasodilators b) Vasoconstrictors c) Mydriatics d) Myotics

• Q.14 Which route of drug administration will be preferred for an unconscious patient?

• a) Oral ingestion b) Inhalation c) Enteral d) Intravenous

• Q.15 5% Glucose Saline means __________.

• a) Each 100 ml contains 5gm glucose and 5gm sodium chloride

• b) Each 100 ml contains 5gm glucose and 0.9gm sodium chloride

• c) Each 100 ml contains 5gm glucose and 0.4gm sodium chloride

• d) Each 100 ml contains 0.5gm glucose and 0.9gm sodium chloride

• Q.16 An agent used to increase the level of haemoglobin content in the blood is known as ________.

• a) Hematinic b) Hemostatic c) Oxytocic d) Diuretic

• Q.17 The largest herbarium of the world is located in ________.

• a) Royal Botanical Garden, Kew b) Central National Herbarium, Shibpur

• c) Museum of Natural History, Paris d) Madras Herbarium, Coimbatore

• Q.18 Which of the following is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor?

• a) Selegiline b) Fluoxetine c) Bupropion d) Doxepin

• Q.19 Which of the following is an anti-anginal drug?

• a) Diltiazem b) Propranolol c) Nitroglycerin d) All of the above

• Q.20 Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside antibiotic?

• a) Streptomycin b) Neomycin c) Kanamycin d) Cephalexin

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type question. Attempt any ten questions out of Eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Define bioavailability and factors influencing bioavailability.

• Q.22 Write a brief note on pilocarpine.

• Q.23 Write a short note on an antidepressant drug.

• Q.24 Briefly describe the drug paracetamol.

• Q.25 Briefly explain the treatment of shock.

• Q.26 Describe the pharmacological action and contraindications of streptokinase.

• Q.27 Define Bronchodilators and mention any two such drugs.

• Q.28 What is the best medicine to treat stomach ulcers? Mention any two drugs belonging to this class.

• Q.29 Briefly describe the drug Quinine.

• Q.30 Briefly describe the pharmacology of penicillin.

• Q.31 Write a short note on Autocoids.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type question. Attempt any six questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Define and classify sulfonamides. Briefly describe the Pharmacology of these drugs with two suitable examples.

• Q.33 Define and classify Opioid Analgesics. Describe the pharmacology & contraindications with a suitable example.

• Q.34 Describe in detail the physiological & pathological role and clinical uses of Insulin.

• Q.35 Describe in detail the advantages and disadvantages associated with the parenteral Route of Administration.

• Q.36 Define and classify Cholinergic drugs. Elaborate on the pharmacological action and contraindications of any one cholinergic drug.

• Q.37 Describe the pharmacological action of any two.

• a) Anti-Hypertensive Drugs b) Anti-Neoplastic Drugs c) Anti-Fungal Drugs d) Estrogens

• Q.38 Define and classify anti-tubercular drugs. Describe briefly any one anti-tubercular drug.

Community Pharmacy & Management. 2nd Year ER20-22T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A

Note: One word / Multiple choice question. All the questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 The word ‘Pharmacy’ is derived from the Greek word:

• a) Pharmaces b) Pharma c) Pharmacisto d) Pharmakon

• Q.2 NABP stands for:

• a) National Association of Boards of Pharmacy.

• b) National Association of Boards of Pharmacy.

• c) National Association of Boards of Pharmacy.

• d) National Association of Boards of Pharma.

• Q.3 Which of the following drugs does not require therapeutic drug monitoring?

• a) Digitoxin b) Paracetamol c) Diazepam d) Isoniazid

• Q.4 The heart of the patient counselling session is called:

• a) Preparing for the session b) Opening the session

• c) Counselling content d) Closing the session

• Q.5 The following are the principles of inventory control except:

• a) Accurate Forecasting b) Effective Replenishment c) Regular Monitoring d) Overstocking

• Q.6 What does the abbreviation ‘O.D.’ written on a prescription mean?

• a) Name of the medicine b) Once Daily

• c) How to take the medicine d) Quantity to be dispensed

• Q.7 Before taking a prescription medicine, you should know which of the following?

• a) How much to take b) When to take it c) Which side effects to expect d) All of the above

• Q.8 Inscription is also called:

• a) Eyes of the Prescription b) Head of the Prescription

• c) Body of the Prescription d) Hand of the Prescription

• Q.9 __________ is the first enemy of communication.

• a) Clarity b) Noise c) Politeness d) Completeness

• Q.10 When speaking on a phone, what type of communication is being used?

• a) Verbal b) Non-verbal c) Verbal & tone of voice d) Verbal & body language

• Q.11 Chronic anaemia and multiple sclerosis are:

• a) Allergic diseases b) Autoimmune diseases c) Hormonal diseases d) Hereditary diseases

• Q.12 Patient information leaflets (PIL’s) are provided by

• a) Supplier b) Manufacturer c) Retailer d) Pharmacist

• Q.13 What are the benefits of medication adherence?

• a) Reduction in admissions and readmissions b) Cost savings

• c) Patient satisfaction d) All of the above

• Q.14 The comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms is referred to as:

• a) Bioavailability b) Biopharmaceutics c) Bio-reference d) Bioequivalence

• Q.15 ________ is a commonly reported ADR of diuretic class of drugs

• a) Hypokalemia b) Alopecia c) Skin disorder d) Allergies

• Q.16 In an ideal drug store, the inventory is:

• a) In excess b) Inadequate c) Measured d) At a level between excessive and inadequate

• Q.17 The symbol Rx means ________.

• Q.18 DIS stands for _________.

• Q.19 Who is the architect of the Indian Pharmaceutical Industry?

• Q.20 Name the premier pharmaceutical association of pharmacists in India.

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions. Attempt any ten questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Define Community pharmacy. What is the difference between community pharmacy and Hospital pharmacy?

• Q.22 What are the roles and responsibilities of a community pharmacist?

• Q.23 Describe various parts of a prescription.

• Q.24 Define patient counselling and mention the benefits of patient counselling.

• Q.25 Describe any three factors responsible for medication non-adherence.

• Q.26 What is the importance of heath screening services?

• Q.27 What do you understand about the promotion of responsible self-medication?

• Q.28 Elaborate on the need and role of a pharmacist in OTC medication dispensing?

• Q.29 What is the difference between e-health and digital health?

• Q.30 What is elderly medical adherence?

• Q.31 What precautions should be taken while dispensing a prescription?

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type question. Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Define dispensing errors and strategies to minimize them.

• Q.33 Define communication skills. What are the different elements of communication skills?

• Q.34 Describe the role and objective of pharmacists in health screening services.

• Q.35 Write a short note on any two:

• a) Customer Relationship Management b) Financial Planning and Management.

• c) Inventory Management. d) Audit in pharmacies

• Q.36 What should be considered while designing a community pharmacy?

• Q.37 What are the strategies to overcome barriers associated with patient counselling?

• Q.38 Explain patient counselling points for Hypertension.

Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology 2nd Year Ph. ER20-23T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A

Note: One word / Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 The condition in which the colour of the sclera of the eyes and skin becomes yellow?

• a) Jaundice b) Yellow fever c) Plague d) Congo fever

• Q.2 Bile salts are absent in?

• a) Pancreas b) Intestine c) Urine d) Stomach

• Q.3 Write the full form of VLDL.

• Q.4 _____ is known as cane sugar.

• Q.5 The normal life span of RBC is?

• a) 10 days b) 120 days c) 200 days d) 100 days

• Q.6 Enzymes responsible for the citric acid cycle are found in? a) Nucleus b) Ribosomes c) Mitochondria d) ER

• Q.7 Direction of DNA synthesis is __________.

• Q.8 Proteins undergo breakdown into smaller units called ____________.

• Q.9 Write the full form of PUFA.

• Q.10 How many amino acids make a protein?

• a) 10 b) 30 c) 40 d) 20

• Q.11 Which factor is not responsible for the denaturation of proteins?

• a) PH b) Heat c) Charge d) Organic solvent

• Q.12 Complex IV / Complex 4 is also known as ______.

• Q.13 Any substance that contains free ions with the property of electrical conductance is known as?

• a) Electrolyte b) Vitamins c) Proteins d) Mineral

• Q.14 In_____ tissue culture techniques were developed.

• a) 1905 b) 1908 c) 1907 d) 1900

• Q.15 The normal range of prothrombin time is?

• a) 1-6 seconds b) 12-16 seconds c) 12-16 minutes d) 12-16 hours

• Q.16 Which blood cells secrete antibodies?

• a) Eosinophils b) Monocytes c) Lymphocytes d) Neutrophils

• Q.17 The monomer unit of lipid is?

• a) Glucose b) Fatty acids c) Ribonucleotides d) Amino acid

• Q.18 Which one of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

• a) Maltose b) Mannose c) Sucrose d) Lactose

• Q.19 What color is the Ninhydrin test?

• a) Blue to violet c) Blue to green b) d) Blue to brown Blue to black

• Q.20 Aldolase belongs to which class of enzymes______.

• SECTION-B

• Note: Short-answer type questions.

• Attempt any ten questions out of Eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Define Enzymes. Mentions its IUB classification.

• Q.22 Mention types of RNA and their functions.

• Q.23 Give the structure of: a) Glucose, c) Galactose, b) Fructose.

• Q.24 Define nucleic acid. Give the difference between nucleosides and nucleotides.

• Q.25 Define proteins. Give a biological significance of proteins.

• Q.26 What are essential amino acids? Give an example and mention its significance.

• Q.27 What is alkaptonuria? Mention its causes, symptoms, and treatments. Q.28 List the dietary sources of electrolytes. Q.29 Write about the role of platelets in health and disease.

• Q.30 Define Glycogenolysis and Glycogenesis. Give its significance. Q.31 What is oral rehydration therapy?

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe the urea cycle.

• Q.33 Elaborate on the normal and abnormal constituents of urine, including their significance and laboratory tests to detect them.

• Q.34 Explain the factors affecting enzyme activity.

• Q.35 Give the structure of sucrose and maltose, along with the test to identify them.

• Q.36 Mention the dietary sources, functions, and deficiency manifestations of vitamin A.

• Q.37 Describe the scope of biochemistry in pharmacy.

• Q.38 Write a note on a disease related to the abnormal metabolism of amino acids.

Pharmacotherapeutics 2nd Year / Pharmacy. ER20-24T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice question. All the questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 What is the definition of hypertension?

• a) Abnormally low blood pressure b) Abnormally high blood pressure

• c) Abnormal heart rhythm d) Abnormal heart valve function.

• Q.2 What is the etiopathogenesis of angina and myocardial infarction?

• a) Excessive cholesterol intake b) Inadequate body supply to the heart muscle

• c) Excessive physical activity d) Genetic predisposition

• Q.3 What is the etiopathogenesis of COPD?

• a) Exposure to environmental pollutants b) Viral infection

• c) Genetic predisposition d) All of the above

• Q.4 What are the clinical manifestations of asthma?

• a) Chest tightness and cough b) Wheezing and shortness of breath

• c) Fever and chills d) No specific symptoms

• Q.5 What is non-pharmacological management for congestive heart failure?

• a) Regular exercise b) Smoking cessation c) Low-salt diet d) All of the above

• Q.6 What is non-pharmacological management for diabetes? a) Regular exercise b) Weight loss c) Low-sugar diet d) All of the above

• Q.7 What is the definition of epilepsy?

• a) Neurodegenerative disorder b) Chronic pain syndrome

• c) Recurrent seizures d) Progressive muscle weakness

• Q.8 What is the etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease?

• a) Inadequate blood supply to the brain

• b) Excessive accumulation of beta-amyloid protein in the brain

• c) Abnormal brain cell communication

• d) All of the above

• Q.9 What is the clinical manifestation of peptic ulcer disease?

• a) Abdominal pain and discomfort b) Chest pain c) Shortness of breath d) Edema

• Q.10 What is the non-pharmacological management of alcoholic liver disease?

• a) Abstinence from alcohol and healthy lifestyle changes b) Anti-alcoholic medications

• c) Coronary angiography d) Stenting

• Q.11 What is the clinical manifestation of stroke?

• a) Sudden weakness or numbness on one side of the body b) Chest pain

• c) Shortness of breath d) Edema

• Q.12 What is the non-pharmacological management of migraine?

• a) Avoiding triggers and regular exercise b) Antimigraine medications

• c) Coronary angiography d) Stenting

• Q.13 Which of the following is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia?

• a) Inadequate dietary intake b) Blood loss

• c) Increased iron utilization d) Decreased absorption

• Q.14 Megaloblastic anaemia is most commonly caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?

• a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin B12 d) Vitamin A

• Q.15 Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of iron deficiency anaemia?

• a) Jaundice b) Peripheral neuropathy c) Glossitis d) Hyperpigmentation

• Q.16 The Schilling test is used to diagnose which type of anaemia?

• a) Iron deficiency anaemia b) Megaloblastic anaemia

• c) Haemolytic anaemia d) Aplastic anaemia

• Q.17 Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a bacterium?

• a) Malaria b) HIV c) Gonorrhea d) Hepatitis C

• Q.18 Which of the following is a viruses causes COVID-19?

• a) Influenza virus b) SARS-CoV-2 c) Ebola virus d) Zika virus

• Q.19 Which of the following is a common symptom of osteoarthritis?

• a) Joint swelling b) Joint stiffness c) Joint redness d) Joint deformity

• Q.20 Which skin condition is caused by a mite infestation?

• a) Psoriasis b) Scabies c) Eczema d) Rosacea

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type question. Attempt any ten questions (10x3=30)

• Q.21 What is COPD? Explain the clinical manifestation of COPD in detail.

• Q.22 Write about the scope and objective of the pharmacotherapeutics.

• Q.23 Explain the purpose and content of standard treatment guidelines.

• Q.24 Explain the pathogenesis and pharmacological treatment of peptic ulcer.

• Q.25 Mention the classification and clinical manifestation of Hyperlipidaemia.

• Q.26 Define Dysmenorrhea. Give an account of its types, diagnosis, & Management.

• Q.27 Classify diabetes and write its etiopathogenesis.

• Q.28 Define the clinical manifestation of angina OR alcoholic liver disease.

• Q.29 Describe the etiopathogenesis and non-pharmacological management of HIV.

• Q.30 Discuss in detail the pathophysiology and non-pharmacological treatment of stroke.

• Q.31 Define Pneumonia. Give an account of its types, pathophysiology, diagnosis & treatment.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type question. Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 What are the pharmacological treatments for tuberculosis

• Q.33 What are the symptoms & pharmacological treatment for depression?

• Q.34 Write down the factors contributing to antimicrobial drug resistance.

• Q.35 Write short notes on any two: a) Eczema, b) Migraine, c) Hypothyroidism

• Q.36 Explain the steps to be taken to prevent the spread of COVID-19

• Q.37 Explain in detail the pharmacological management of hypertension.

• Q.38 Explain in detail the pharmacological treatment of Crohn’s disease.

Hospital And Clinical Pharmacy 2nd Year / Pharmacy ER20-25T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A

Note: One word / Multiple choice question. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 What is the scope of Hospital Pharmacy?

• a) Dispensing of medicines to patients b) Preparation of sterile products

• c) Procurement and storage of drugs d) All of the above

• Q.2 The total number of copies of purchase order prepared are ____________.

• a) 05 b) 06 c) 07 d) 09

• Q.3 The main function of a hospital is to provide __________to the sick or injured.

• a) Care b) Food c) Education d) Saline

• Q.4 Presence of protein in urine is known as _________.

• Q.5 Which of the following is a branch of medicine that focuses on the care of the elderly?

• a) Paediatrics b) Geriatrics c) Obstetrics d) Cardiology

• Q.6 Cold storage temperature is ___________

• 0 C a) 2 °C to 8 °C b) 10 °C to 14 °C c) 15 °C to 18 °C d) None

• Q.7 What is the importance of monitoring TPN therapy?

• a) To ensure that the patient is receiving the proper nutrients

• b) To prevent complications such as infection or metabolic imbalances

• c) To monitor for adverse drug reactions.

• d) All of the above

• Q.8 What is the role of a pharmacist in the emergency ward?

• a) To prescribe medications for patients b) To administer medications to patients

• c) To prepare and dispense medications for patients d) To provide counselling to patients

• Q.9 FEFO stands for______

• a) First Expire First Out b) First Exist First over c) First Entry First Out d) None

• Q.10 Dimercaprol is used to treat

• a) Arthritis b) Poisoning c) Inflammation d) Anaemia

• Q.11 Which of the following tests is the glucose memory test?

• a) GCT b) HbA1C c) GTT d) SGCT

• Q.12 Which of the following is a radio-opaque compound?

• a) Barium chloride b) Barium sulphate c) Barium oxide d) Barium phosphate

• Q.13 What are some examples of drugs that may be included in a high-risk drug list?

• a) c) Antibiotics Narcotics b) d) Chemotherapy drugs All of the above

• Q.14 What is the advantage of the individual prescription order method of drug distribution? a) It is the most cost-effective method

• b). It minimizes the risk of medication errors

• c) It promotes medication waste reduction.

• d). It allows for quick and easy access to medications

• Q.15 What is a NICU?

• a) Neonatal Intensive Care Unit b) c) d) Neurological Intensive Care Unit Nephrology Intensive Care Unit None of the above

• Q.16 How many beds are required for medium size hospital?

• Q.17 How many pharmacists are required for 100 beds hospital?

• Q.18 Spirometry is used to test ________.

• Q.19 A teratogenic drug causes toxicity of ________.

• Q.20 Write the full form of CSSD.

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of Eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Explain the role of PTC.

• Q.22 Give the classification of hospitals.

• Q.23 How do you handle expired drugs?

• Q.24 Describe pharmacovigilance and ICH regulation

• Q.25 What is bulk compounding?

• Q.26 Write a short note on dispensing of charged / non-charged floor stock drugs.

• Q.27 Describe inventory control techniques.

• Q.28 Write a short note on the drug information service.

• Q.29 Write down the risk associated with intravenous (IV) therapy.

• Q.30 How to check your pulse?

• Q.31 Define poisons along with their classification.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type question.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 What are high-risk drugs or high-alert drugs? Give 5 examples of high-risk drugs.

• Q.33 Draw a layout, location, and flowchart of materials and men in a pharmacy.

• Q.34 Draw and explain the location and layout of out-patient dispensing, OR

• What is TPN? What is the most common complication associated with parenteral nutrition?

• Q.35 Write a detailed note on ADR.

• Q.36 Explain briefly about the distribution and storage of narcotic and psychotropic substances.

• Q.37 Explain medication errors and their types.

• Q.38 Explain how drug interaction occurs with both outside and inside the human body.

Pharmacy Law & Ethics 2nd Year / Pharmacy. ER20-26T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A

Note: One word / Multiple choice question. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 The Drug Import Bill was passed in the year

• a) 1935 b) 1937 c) 1939 d) 1941

• Q.2 Write the full form of IPR

• Q.3 PCI was constituted in

• a) 1919 b) 1948 c) 1949 d) 1942

• Q.4 The instruments of legislation are

• a) Act b) Section c) Orders d) All of the above

• Q.5 PCI is reconstituted at every

• a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 4 years d) 5 years

• Q.6 The schedule for the life period of the drug is

• a) Schedule Q b) Schedule P c) Schedule R d) Schedule

• Q.7 Examples of Narcotic drugs

• a) Opium b) Coca c) Hemp d) All of the above

• Q.8 Advertisement of drugs claiming a cure for a disease mentioned in Schedule J is

• a) Granted b) Prohibited c) Exempted d) None of the above

• Q.9 Displaying a signboard or notices by a registered medical practitioner on his premises falls under

• a) Regular advertisement b) Permitted advertisement

• c) Exempted advertisement d) Prohibited advertisement

• Q.10 According to the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,1960, the word ‘animal’ means any living creature except.

• a) Birds b) Animals c) Human Beings d) None of the above

• Q.11 Biomedical waste Management, Rules came into existence in the year _______

• Q.12 The Poison Act came into existence in the year __________.

• Q.13 What is the meaning of ED in the calculation of the retail price of drugs?

• a) Excise duty b) Exempted duty c) Extra duty d) Emergency Duty

• Q.14 The Drugs Price Control Order applies to

• a) Ayurveda medicines b) Unani Medicines

• c) Homoeopathic medicines d) Allopathic Medicines

• Q.15 The code of ethics of pharmacy is developed by

• a) PCI b) SPC c) MCI d) DCGI Q.

• 16 What is the full form of ICMR?

• Q.17 The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was passed in the year

• a) 1965 b) 1971 c) 1947 d) 1945

• Q.18 Where is the Headquarters of CDSCO located?

• a) Mumbai b) Kolkata c) Chennai d) Delhi

• Q.19 How many Zonal offices of CDSCO are there?

• a) 6 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8 Q.20 Drug Regulatory body of India is __________.

SECTION-B

Note: Attempt any ten questions out of Eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 What are the functions of the Animal Welfare Board of India?

• Q.22 Describe the role of Schedules. C, G, and H as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1948

• Q.23. Explain principles of bioethics.

• Q.24 Explain the classes of Drugs & Cosmetics prohibited from import.

• Q.25 Write a short note on Licensing Authority

• Q.26 Explain the role and responsibilities of Government Analysts

• Q.27 Write a short note on Penalties under the Poisons Act, 1919

• Q.28 Elaborate on the functions of FSSAI

• Q.29 Define Ceiling Price and Market Price.

• Q.30 Explain the basic concept of clinical trials.

• Q.31 Write a short note on the Consumer Protection Act.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type question.

Attempt any six questions. Out of seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Elaborate on the objectives of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954.

• Q.33 What are the duties and functions of the Drug Technical Advisory Board?

• Q.34 Elaborate on the functions and composition of the state pharmacy councils and the joint state pharmacy council.

• Q.35 Write a short note on Termination of pregnancy by registered medical practitioners.

• Q.36 Explain briefly the steps involved in the Drug Development Process.

• Q.37 Describe the Offences & penalties as per the Narcotics & Psychotropic Substances Act.

• Q.38 Write short notes on any two:

• a) Restricted License b) National list of essential medicines c) Biomedical Waste

Dr Alok Bains