Sample Question Paper, D. Pharmacy, 2nd Year, PCI Education Regulation, Technical Education Board, All Subjects, Pharmacology, Community Pharmacy and Management, Biochemistry & Clinical Pathology, Pharmacotherapeutics, Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy, Pharmacy Law and Ethics (Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Forensic Pharmacy).

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Pharmacology ER20-21T. Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year. Pharmacy

SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Aspirin belongs to which class of drugs?

• a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) b) Antibiotics

• c) Antidepressants d) Antipyretics

• Q.2 ACE inhibitors are primarily used to treat:

• a) Bacterial infections b) Diabetes c) Hypertension d) Allergic reactions

• Q.3 What is the primary function of anticoagulant drugs?

• a) Lowering blood pressure b) Reducing inflammation

• c) Preventing blood clot formation d) Stimulating insulin production

• Q.4 The term " antipyretic" refers to drugs that:

• a) Lower fever b) Increase body temperature

• c) Induce sleep d) Relieve pain

• Q.5 Clopidogrel is a medication primarily used to:

• a) Treat depression b) Prevent blood clot formation c) Lower cholesterol d) Treat diabetes

• Q.6 Which of the following is a common side effect of corticosteroid use?

• a) Hypertension b) Hypoglycemia c) Immune suppression d) Diarrhea

• Q.7 Which drug class is commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders?

• a) Benzodiazepines b) Antipsychotics

• c) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) d) Antibiotics

• Q.8 In Parkinson's disease, which neurotransmitter is deficient and often targeted for drug therapy?

• a) Serotonin b) Dopamine c) GABA d) Acetylcholine

• Q.9 Which drug class is used to dilate blood vessels and lower blood pressure?

• a) Diuretics b) Beta-blockers c) Calcium channel blockers d) Antihistamines

• Q.10 Which drug is commonly used to treat allergic reactions?

• a) Cimetidine b) Metformin c) Diphenhydramine d) Omeprazole

• Q.11 The time it takes for the body to eliminate one-half of the drug's concentration is known as the drug's______.

• Q.12 The therapeutic index is a measure of a drug's ______.

• Q.13 Acetaminophen is an analgesic and______ but not an NSAID.

• Q.14 In pharmacology, GABA stands for__________.

• Q.15 Simvastatin is commonly used to treat high_______ levels.

• Q.16 Define the term Oxytocic agents.

• Q.17 Define the term Prodrugs.

• Q.18 What is Drug Efficacy?

• Q.19 Define a Placebo Effect.

• Q.20 Define Drug Clearance.

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Explain the role of antihistamines in the treatment of allergies and allergic reactions.

• Q.22 Discuss the use of mucolytic agents in the treatment of cough.

• Q.23 Describe the classification of antibiotics based on their mechanism of action.

• Q.24 Explain the difference between over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription drugs.

• Q.25 Classify Neuro Muscular Blocking Agents with two examples each.

• Q.26 Discuss the mechanism of action and clinical uses of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs).

• Q.27 Define pharmacodynamics and describe the different types of drug receptors.

• Q.28 Classify Opioid analgesic with two examples each.

• Q.29 Describe the mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of antipsychotic drugs.

• Q.30 Explain the concept of bioavailability and its importance in drug administration.

• Q.31 Classify Laxatives and Purgatives with two examples each.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe the mechanisms of action, clinical uses, and potential side effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in the treatment of cardiovascular conditions.

• Q.33 Explain the mechanism of action, clinical uses, and potential side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in the treatment of mood disorders.

• Q.34 Explain the pharmacological properties and clinical uses of diuretic medications in the management of hypertension and edema.

• Q.35 Describe the importance of the kidneys in drug elimination and excretion, highlighting the role of glomerular filtration and tubular secretion.

• Q.36 Discuss the causative microorganism of Malaria and the drugs used in the treatment of Malaria.

• Q.37 Describe the four major pharmacokinetic processes (absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination) and their importance in drug therapy.

• Q.38 Discuss the mechanism of action and clinical applications of bronchodilators in the management of asthma.

Community Pharmacy and Management ER20-22T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Community Pharmacies are independently owned & run by_________

• a) Doctors b) OT Technicians c) Nurses d) Pharmacists

• Q.2 Before the 12th century, these merchants in Germany conducted their business in separate chambers or shops known as________

• a) Clinic b) Rest Room c) Apothecia d) Hospital

• Q.3 OPL stands for

• a) Oceanic Performance League b) Oceanic Pro League

• c) Oceanic Product League d) Oceanic Pro Lost

• Q.4 __________are the written protocols & Procedures in a pharmacy, stating the way Pharmacy expects tasks to be conducted to provide a Quality service

• a) Standard Operating Procedures b) Good Pharmacy Practice

• c) Standard Operating Order d) Main Operating Procedure

• Q.5 LASA stands for

• a) Lost-Alike & Source-Alike b) Look-Alike & Sound-Alike

• c) Like-Alike & Sing-Alike d) Leaf-Alike & Sound -Active

• Q.6 ______are tools that minimize misunderstanding on a drug treatment, strengthening comprehension as well as recall of medicine-related information & attract attention

• a) General inscription b) Medical prescription

• c) Dispensing Error d) Pharmaceutical Pictograms

• Q.7 _______ is a discrepancy between a prescription & the medicine that the pharmacy delivers to the patient or distributes to the ward based on this prescription

• a) Dispensing Error b) Prescription Error c) Pharmaceutical Error d) Medical Error

• Q.8 According to Mehrabian, the tone of voice is nearly ______ of the message is accountable to the tone of voice

• a) 5-10% b) 15-45% c) 25-35% d) 35-40%

• Q.9 The element of face-to-face communication is_______

• a) Body Language b) Word c) Tone of voice d) All of the above

• Q.10 _______ is not disease, but is an important risk factor for several complications that ultimately results in organ damage

• a) Lymphoma b) Hypertension c) Cancer d) Tuberculosis

• Q.11 Patient Package inserts are also known as _________

• a) Therapeutic Care b) Pharmaceutical Care c) Medication Adherence d) Medication Guide Q.12 Tachycardia means_________

• a) Increase Blood Pressure b) Increase Heart Rate

• c) Decrease Heart Rate d) Decrease Blood Pressure

• Q.13 The degree to which the person's behavior corresponds with the agreed recommendations from health care provider is called as___________

• a) Patient Counselling b) Medication Adherence c) Medical coding d) Medical Writing

• Q.14 ______ is a failure of the patient to obey instructions for administering the medications as directed, and thus resulting in lower response of treatment than expected

• a) Non-compliance b) Healthcare factor c) Adherence Assessment d) Medication Possession

• Q.15 Total Cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL Cholesterol & LDL Cholesterol are all measured in

• a) Carbohydrate Profile Test b) Lipid Profile Test c) Amine Profile Test d) Protein Profile Test

• Q.16 Hardening of the arteries can lead to a heart attack. This condition is called__________

• a) Diabetes b) Angina Pectoris c) Hypertension d) Atherosclerosis

• Q.17 ______may also include personal or sensitive patient concerns that need to be kept private

• a) Patient Counselling b) OTC Counselling c) Medical Counselling d) Patient Monitoring Q.18 ______ is a broad term that encompasses a wide range of unpleasant body sensation

• a) Grimacing b) Pain c) Muscle Spasm d) Depression

• Q.19 ______Audit conducted within the premises to monitor the implementation & respect of good manufacturing practices

• a) Internal b) Regulatory c) External d) Performance

• Q.20 ______ in pharmaceutical industry refers to a person who is engaged in the activity of selling or supplying the drug

• a) Pharmacist b) Retailer c) Manufacturer d) Vendor

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Describe in brief the community Pharmacy Practice in the 1960s & 1970s. Q.22 Describe the advantages & content of SOP. (Standard Operating Procedure)

• Q.23 Write the components of a prescription.

• Q.24 Describe the advantages of verbal communication.

• Q.25 Describe the strategies to overcome the barriers in patient counselling.

• Q.26 Write down the responsibilities of professional community pharmacists.

• Q.27 Describe the factor related to the patient influencing non-adherence.

• Q.28 Describe Self-care during Diarrhea.

• Q.29 Write any three roles of a pharmacist in OTC Medication.

• Q.30 Describe Chain Pharmacies.

• Q.31 Write the documents required for establishing a Retail & Wholesale Drug Store.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe the responsibilities of a Community Pharmacist related to patient-centered care activities.

• Q.33 Describe any 5 strategies for minimizing Dispensing Errors.

• Q.34 Describe in brief the Patient Interview Techniques.

• Q.35 Describe the counselling point for counselling a patient with Diabetes.

• Q.36 Write in brief the strategies to overcome non-adherence.

• Q.37 Describe in brief the measurement of Blood Pressure by using a monitor.

• Q.38 Write Economic Order Quantity. (EOQ)

Biochemistry & Clinical Pathology ER20-23T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year.

SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which one is an example of Monosaccharides

• a) Glucose b) Maltose c) Lactose d) Sucrose

• Q.2 Which one is not an example of a polysaccharide

• a) Starch b) Cellulose c) Heparin d) Fructose

• Q.3 Benedict's test is used for the identification of

• a) Carbohydrates b) Protein c) Vitamins d) Lipids

• Q.4 Fehling A Reagent contains

• a) Copper Sulphate b) Acetic Acid c) Cellulose d) Iodine

• Q.5 Which one is not an Essential Amino acid?

• a) Leucine b) Valine c) Lysine d) Glycine

• Q.6 The Ninhydrin test is used for the identification of

• a) Amino Acid b) Carbohydrates c) Lipids d) Vitamins

• Q.7 Enzyme Dehydrogenase is used for the diagnosis of

• a) Myocardial Infarction b) Tuberculosis c) Hepatitis d) Diabetes

• Q.8 Deficiency of Iodine may cause

• a) Goiter b) Anemia c) Diabetes d) Hepatitis

• Q.9 Which one is the function of the kidney

• a) Removal of waste product b) Removal of excess fluid

• c) Control of Blood Pressure d) All of the above

• Q.10 Biotechnology has made contributions in which area:

• a) Medicine b) Industrial c) Environment d) all of the above

• Q.11 Define the term Biochemistry.

• Q.12 Sakaguchi test, a qualitative test is used for the identification of what.

• Q.13 Define the term Enzyme

• Q.14 Mention one use of Iron

• Q.15 In Aerobic Glycolysis, net gain of how many ATP occurs?

• Q.16 Define the term Hyperammonemia.

• Q.17 Define the term Thrombocytopenia.

• Q.18 Mention one use of Vitamin E.

• Q.19 Full form of VLDL is

• Q.20 Mention one example of a simple lipid.

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Mention three scopes of Biochemistry in Pharmacy

• Q.22 Classify Disaccharides

• Q.23 Write a brief note on the disease Marasmus.

• Q.24 Write a note on Millions Test

• Q.25 Mention three functions of Lipoprotein

• Q.26 Mention three functions of RNA

• Q.27 Mention three properties of Enzymes.

• Q.28 Mention three functions of Vitamin D

• Q.29 Mention the names of three Glycogen storage diseases.

• Q.30 Mention three uses of Selenium

• Q.31 Mention three functions of water in the human body

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe in detail Glycolysis.

• Q.33 Describe in detail any three Chemical properties of carbohydrates

• Q.34 Describe in detail the classification of Amino Acids

• Q.35 Describe in detail the five factors affecting Enzyme activity.

• Q.36 Describe in detail the Biochemistry of vitamin A, C & B12.

• Q.37 Describe in detail the Biochemical role of Manganese and Cobalt.

• Q.38 Describe in detail any two Abnormal Constituents of urine, including their identification test and Biomedical importance.

Pharmacotherapeutics ER20-24T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year / Pharmacy

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Angina index can be calculated as

• a) Heart Rate x Diastolic BP b) Heart Rate x Systolic BP

• c) Pulse Rate x Systolic BP d) Pulse Rate x Diastolic BP

• Q.2 Insulin aspart is an example of

• a) Short-acting insulin b) Rapid-acting insulin

• c) Intermediate acting insulin d) Ultra long acting insulin

• Q.3 Tonic-Clonic Seizure is also known as

• a) Grandmal epilepsy b) Petitmal epilepsy c) Absence seizures d) Focal seizures

• Q.4 Drug of choice for the treatment of peptic ulcer caused by chronic use of NSAIDs is

• a) Loxatidine b) Esomeprazole c) Ciprofloxacin d) Amoxicillin

• Q.5 Which one of the following is a DNA virus

• a) HAV b) HBV c) HCV d) HDV

• Q.6 Scabies is a skin disease caused by

• a) Mosquito b) Flea c) Fungi d) Mite

• Q.7 Antibiotics are used to treat infections by

• a) Virus b) Bacteria c) All the microorganisms d) None of the above

• Q.8 Which part of a joint does osteoarthritis usually affect

• a) Bone b) Cartilage c) Tendon d) Ligament

• Q.9 Which of the Plasmodium species causes the most serious malaria complications

• a) Plasmodium vivax b) Plasmodium malariae

• c) Plasmodium ovale d) Plasmodium falciparum

• Q.10 Which of the following forms is the active form of thyroid hormone

• a) T3 b) T4 c) rT3 d) All of above (2) Q.11 CHF stands for ______________

• Q.12 Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are also called as___________

• Q.13 National list of Essential Medicine is prepared by ___________

• Q.14 Bacterial pneumonia caused by__________

• Q.15 Retinopathy is chronic complication of _________ disease.

• Q.16 Phenytoin is used for the treatment of ___________

• Q.17 Apnea is __________

• Q.18 Example of keratolytics used in management of Psoriasis ___________

• Q.19 SSRI is the first line therapy to treat___________

• Q.20 Mydriasis is_______________

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Discuss common causes of heart failure. Q.22 Differentiate hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism.

• Q.23 Describe clinical manifestations of migraine. Q.24 Discuss the etiopathogenesis of COVID-19.

• Q.25 Describe DOTS therapy.

• Q.26 Classify different types of pneumonia.

• Q.27 Enlist non-pharmacological management of osteoarthritis.

• Q.28 Write in brief about the pharmacological treatment of scabies.

• Q.29 Explain clinical manifestations of anxiety.

• Q.30 Discuss the etiopathogenesis of glaucoma.

• Q.31 Define and explain the rational use of medicines.

SECTION-C

Note:

Long answer type questions. Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe pharmacological management of asthma.

• Q.33 Discuss various drugs used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus.

• Q.34 Classify and explain various drugs used for Parkinson's disease.

• Q.35 Explain pharmacological management of IBD.

• Q.36 Explain various steps for the management of depression.

• Q.37 Define PCOS. Explain various factors causing PCOS

• Q.38 Discuss antiretroviral drugs used in the treatment of HIV infection.

Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy ER20-25T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year / Pharmacy

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which of the following drugs requires cold temperature for storage

• a) Oxytocin b) Ampicillin c) Streptomycin d) Cloxacillin

• Q.2 Increased total bilirubin, especially direct bilirubin, indicates

• a) Influenza b) AMI c) Pancreatitis d) COPD

• Q.3 An increase in total leukocytes over the normal is called

• a) Leukemia b) Leucopenia c) Leukacytosis d) Pancytopenia

• Q.4 EOQ stands for a) Electronic Obtained Quantity

• b) Electronic Ordered Quantity c) Economic Order Quality d) Economic Order Quantity

• Q.5 Drug used in the critical setting of a hospital as an emergency

• a) Ranitidine b) Adrenaline c) Verapamil d) Glimipiride

• Q.6 Which of the following is not a component of TPN

• a) Amino Acids b) Fats c) Fibers d) None

• Q.7 Gold-198 is used in the treatment of

• a) Pernicious Anaemia b) Rheumatoid Arthritis

• c) Thyroid functioning d) Detection of Tumor

• Q.8 Absorption of the drug from the GIT is more in the case of

• a) Ionic Drug b) Non-Ionic Drug c) Ionic and Non-Ionic Drug d) None of the above

• Q.9 Naloxone is used as an antidote in the poisoning of

• a) Barbiturates b) Cocaine c) Morphine d) Alcohol

• Q.10 Medicine to be taken on an empty stomach

• a) Ampicillin b) Nimesulide c) Naproxen d) Albendazole

• Q.11 NQAS stands for_____________

• Q.28 Describe the role of the clinical pharmacist.

• Q.12 Antineoplastic agents defined as___________

• Q.13 NICU stands for________________

• Q.14 Nephrologists are ______________

• Q.15 Type of WBC differential increases in allergic disorders____________

• Q.16 Sphygmomanometer is used___________

• Q.17 Abbreviation HS is a prescription that means_______

• Q.18 Normal range of Thrombocytes__________

• Q.19 Purpose of powdered charcoal in universal antidote___________

• Q.20 National Pharmacovigilance centre located at __________

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Define the role of the Hospital Pharmacist.

• Q.22 Describe Hospital Formulary and Formulary System in brief.

• Q.23 Explain the ideal storage conditions of medicines.

• Q.24 Discuss automated drug dispensing systems.

• Q.25 Differentiate between compounding and manufacturing a medicine.

• Q.26 How are radiopharmaceuticals dispensed?

• Q.27 Enumerate the software used in a hospital.

• Q.29 Explain the management of organophosphorus compound poisoning.

• Q.30 Discuss LASA medicines.

• Q.31 Discuss various drug-food interactions.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Explain NABH accreditation and its benefits.

• Q.33 Describe the objectives and functions of the Infection Control Committee.

• Q.34 Discuss the purchase procedure and issues of medicines in pharmacy operations.

• Q.35 Describe the drug distribution system for IPD patients in the hospital.

• Q.36 Explain principles and procedures to provide pharmaceutical care.

• Q.37 Explain current methods of pharmacovigilance.

• Q.38 Discuss pharmacodynamic drug interactions.

Pharmacy Law and Ethics 2nd Year / Branch: Pharmacy Time: 3Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Drug import bill was passed in the year a) 1935 b) 1945 c) 1940 d) 1937

• Q.2 Poisons Act was passed in a) 1923 b) 1919 c) 1920 d) 1918

• Q.3 Central Registered maintained by

• a) AICTE b) MCI c) PCI d) State Council

• Q.4 An act regulates the profession of Pharmacy.

• a) Patent Act b) Cosmetic Act c) MTP Act d) Pharmacy Act

• Q.5 Grant of license to manufacture a drug requires

• a) Form 24 b) Form 25 c) Form 26 d) Form 27

• Q.6 As per D & C Act Schedule W.

• a) List of the minimum equipment required for the running of the Pharmacy

• b) Life Period of the Drugs

• c) Standard for disinfectant fluids

• d) None of the above

• Q.7 Examples of Narcotic drugs

• a) Charas b) Morphine c) Ganja d) All the above

• Q.8 What is the meaning of ED in the calculation of the retail price of the drug?

• a) Directorate of Enforcement b) Exempted duty c) Excise duty d) Emergency Duty

• Q.9 Medical termination of pregnancy is safe up to

• a) 12 Weeks b) 18 Weeks c) 26 Weeks d) 10 Weeks

• Q.10 Which of the following areas has the lowest chance of producing biomedical waste?

• a) Hospitals b) Clinical c) Laboratories d) Agricultural lands

• Q.11 Regulatory body of USA ___________

• Q.12 Schedule M is related to ___________

• Q.13 What is the composition of the District Forum?

• Q.14 Government Opium Factory is located at _________

• Q.15 FSSAI means ___________

• Q.16 Ethics means ___________

• Q.17 How many patients are involved in the clinical trial phase 2?

• Q.18 NDA means ___________

• Q.19 Medical Devices rules were established in the year ________

• Q.20 The State Disaster management authority is headed by ___________

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 What is the power of the drug inspector?

• Q.22 What are the standards of quality of misbranded drugs and adulterated drugs?

• Q.23 What are the conditions of the import license?

• Q.24 Write a short note on Education Regulation.

• Q.25 Give general responsibility under the Food Safety and Standards Act.

• Q.26 Write a short note on the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC).

• Q.27 Explain brand name versus generic name with an example.

• Q.28 Write a short note on compulsory license in Intellectual Property Rights.

• Q.29 Write a short note on Registered Pharmacy.

• Q.30 Mention the treatment and disposal for the biomedical management rules 2016.

• Q.31 What are the functions of the state authority under the Disaster Management Act 2005?

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 What are the duties of the Government? Analyst?

• Q.33 Write a note on Drug & Magic Remedies.

• Q.34 Write a note on the objectives and types of Clinical Trials.

• Q.35 Write a note on e-governance of drug manufacturing.

• Q.36 What are the duties and functions of FSSAI?

• Q.37 Discuss in detail the requirements of the manufacture of blood products.

• Q.38 What is the procedure for the grant of a patent in India?