Download 2nd Year D.Pharm Sample Papers PDF (All Subjects) – Score High in Exams

SAMPLE PAPER - 1                                                                                                                                                 J23

Subject: PHARMACOLOGY ER20-21T 2nd Year. Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. MM: 80

Section –A

Note: Multiple Choice/Objective-type questions. All questions are compulsory. 20x1=20

• Q.1 Which one is not an example of General anesthetics

• (A) Procaine (B) Nitrous Oxide (C) Halothane (D) Ether

• Q.2 Which drug is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis

• (A) Insulin (B) Penicillin (C) Heparin (D) Neostigmine

• Q.3 Example of an Acetic acid derivative used as NSAIDS is

• (A) Indomethacin (B) Aspirin (C) Vitamins (D) Paracetamol

• Q.4 Which one is not a Cholinergic drug

• (A) Pilocarpine (B) Adrenaline (C) Physostigmine (D) Carbachol

• Q.5 Drug Haloperidol is used as

• (A) Antibiotics (B) Anti-Cancer Drug (C) Anti-leprotic Drug (D) Antipsychotic Drug

• Q.6 Mechanism of action of the drug Verapamil includes

• (A) Ca++ Channel Blocks (B) Cell wall rupture (C) DNA Inhibition (D) Cell membrane rupture

• Q.7 What is the use of the drug insulin

• (A) Anti-cancer (B) Anti Diabetics (C) Haematinics (D) Local Anesthetics

• Q.8 Which one is an example of H-2 Receptor antagonists

• (A) Ranitidine (B) Aspirin (C) Methotrexate (D) Atropine

• Q.9 Example of an alkylating agent anti-cancer drug is

• (A) Propranolol (B) Kanamycin (C) Nystatin (D) Cyclophosphamide

• Q.10. Example of Osmotic Diuretics is

• (A) Tolbutamide (B) Penicillin (C) Mannitol (D) Indomethacin

• Q.11 Define the term Pharmacology

• Q.12 Mention the mechanism of action of the drug penicillin

• Q.13 Mention one Heparin antagonist

• Q.14 Mention one use of Aspirin

• Q.15 Mention one use of Liquid Paraffin

• Q.16 Mention one example of Loop Diuretics

• Q.17 Define the term hypokalemia

• Q.18 Mention one use of Prochlorperazine

• Q.19 Mention the mechanism of action of the drug Methotrexate

• Q.20 Mention one example of Coagulants

Section-B

Note: Short answer type Questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. 10x3=30

• Q.21 Describe in brief about Acetylcholine

• Q.22 Describe in brief one antispasmodic drug

• Q.23 Mention three uses of Gentamycin

• Q.24 Mention three uses of Quinine

• Q.25 Mention three adverse effects of Atropine

• Q.26 Mention three uses of Chlorpromazine

• Q.27 Briefly describe three pharmacological actions of Amphetamine

• Q.28 Briefly describe the Pharmacology of Cephalosporins

• Q.29 Briefly describe the drug Paracetamol.

• Q.30 Briefly describe the drug Diazepam

• Q.31 Briefly describe the drug Levodopa.

Section –C

Note:

Long answer questions. Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. 6X5= 30

• Q.32 Define and classify Antibiotics, briefly describe the pharmacology of Macrolides with two suitable examples

• Q.33 Define and classify Diuretics. Describe in brief about Furosemide and Acetazolamide

• Q.34 Describe in detail the pharmacology of Vitamin D

• Q.35 Define and classify Anti Parkinson drugs. Describe briefly two anti-Parkinson drugs.

• Q.36 Define and classify antiarrhythmic drugs. Describe Quinidine and Diltiazem briefly

• Q.37 Describe in brief the Oral Hypoglycemic agents

• Q.38 Describe in detail the Parenteral route of drug administration.

• Subject: Biochemistry & Clinical Pathology ER20-23T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year

• SECTION-A

• Note: Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which one is an example of a disaccharide

• a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Lactose d) Starch

• Q.2 Which one is not an example of a simple protein

• a) Albumins b) Globulins c) Histones d) Glycoproteins

• Q.3 The Molisch test is used for the identification of

• a) Carbohydrates b) Protein c) Vitamins d) Lipids

• Q.4 Fehling B Reagent contains

• a) Sodium Potassium tartrate b) Acetic Acid c) Cellulose d) Iodine

• Q.5 Which one is not an Essential Amino acid?

• a) Tryptophan b) Valine c) Lysine d) Alanine

• Q.6 All Enzymes are a) Protein b) Vitamins c) Minerals d) Lipids

• Q.7 Cholecalciferol is the name of

• a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin B12 d) Vitamin C

• Q.8 Which one is the end product of the metabolism of an amino acid

• a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Urea d) Insulin

• Q.9 Which one is not an example of Compound Lipids

• a) Phospholipids b) Glycolipids c) Lipoproteins d) Waxes

• Q.10 Saponification test is used for the identification of

• a) Lipids b) Protein c) Carbohydrates d) Amino Acids

• Q.11 Define the term Carbohydrates

• Q.12 Barfoed's test, a qualitative test, is used for the identification of what.

• Q.13 Define the term Glycoprotein

• Q.14 Mention one use of Vitamin K

• Q.15 In Anaerobic Glycolysis, the net gain of how many ATP occurs?

• Q.16 Define the term Glycogenolysis

• Q.17 Define the term Alkaptonuria

• Q.18 Mention one use of Vitamin B-1

• Q.19 Define the term Coenzyme

• Q.20 Mention one example of Derived Lipids S

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Mention three contributions of Biotechnology

• Q.22 Mention three functions of the liver

• Q.23 Mention three General properties of Amino Acids

• Q.24 Mention three uses of vitamin B-12

• Q.25 Mention three functions of Fluorine

• Q.26 Mention three functions of Nucleic Acid

• Q.27 Mention three differences between Competitive and Non-Competitive Enzyme inhibition

• Q.28 Mention three Biological roles of Protein

• Q.29 Write a brief note on the disease kwashiorkor

• Q.30 Mention the biochemical role of Creatinine

• Q.31 Mention three factors affecting enzyme activity

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe in detail the TCA Cycle

• Q.33 Describe in detail the structure of a protein

• Q.34 Describe in brief the classification of Lipids with suitable examples

• Q.35 Describe in detail the Therapeutic Importance of Enzymes

• Q.36 Describe in detail the Biochemistry of vitamin D, E, & B -6

• Q.37 Describe in detail the Urea Cycle

• Q.38 Describe in detail the causes, symptoms, type, and Oral rehydration therapy.

Subject: Pharmacotherapeutics ER20-24T 2nd Year. Time : 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Angina attacks are unpredictable and almost always occur at rest or during sleep

• a) Classical Angina b) Microvascular Angina c) Stable Angina d) Variant Angina

• Q.2 Drug of choice for first line treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus

• a) Glipizide b) Sitagliptin c) Acarbose d) Metformin

• Q.3 The specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA

• a) Dementia b) Dyskinesis c) Hypertension d) Bradycardia

• Q.4 Migraine is a ________disorder

• a) Neurovascular b) Neuronal c) Vascular d) Pulmonary

• Q.5 All are H2 blockers except

• a) Cimetidine b) Omeprazole c) Famotodine d) Ranitidine Q

• .6 Route of transmission of the hepatitis B virus is

• a) Oral Fecal b) Contaminated body fluids c) Droplets d) Skin contact

• Q.7 Which is an autoimmune disorder?

• a) Peptic ulcer b) Rheumatoid Arthritis c) Angina pectoris d) Epilepsy

• Q.8 First-line lipid-lowering drug

• a) Amlodipine b) Atorvastatin c) Enalapril d) Propranolol

• Q.9 Myxoedema is a condition associated with

• a) Hyperthyroidism b) Hypertension c) CHF d) Hypothyroidism

• Q.10 Which one of the following drugs is contraindicated in peptic ulcer

• a) Ranitidine b) Omeprazole c) Aspirin d) Domeperidone

• Q.11 COPD stands for_____________

• Q.12 Syphillis is caused by_____________

• Q.13 Latest National list of Essential Medicine is published in _________year

• Q.14 Amlodipine is used to treat ______________

• Q.15 GERD is______________

• Q.16 Sulfa drugs used in inflammatory bowel disease is_________

• Q.17 Cerebral malaria is causes by______________

• Q.18 Full form of RNTCP is ________________

• Q.19 SARS stands for_________________

• Q.20 Disease associated with destruction of optic nerve is ____________

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Discuss the etiopathogenesis of asthma.

• Q.22 Describe clinical manifestations of diabetes mellitus.

• Q.23 Name the hormones secreted by the thyroid gland and mention their role.

• Q.24 Discuss clinical manifestations of stroke.

• Q.25 Differentiate Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's disease.

• Q.26 Describe the etiopathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis.

• Q.27 Explain the purpose and content of standard treatment guidelines.

• Q.28 Discuss in brief the management of PCOS.

• Q.29 Differentiate open-angle glaucoma and narrow-angle glaucoma.

• Q.30 Enlist various psychiatric disorders and write about them in brief.

• Q.31 Write in brief about the etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease.

SECTION-C

Note:

Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Explain pharmacological management of CHF.

• Q.33 Discuss in detail the agents used in anti-migraine therapy.

• Q.34 Discuss the management of megaloblastic anaemia.

• Q.35 Explain the steps to be taken to prevent the spread of COVID-19.

• Q.36 Classify antiretroviral drugs used in the treatment of HIV infection.

• Q.37 Explain the pharmacological management of tuberculosis.

• Q.38 Explain the drugs used in the treatment of UTI.

Subject: Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy ER20-25T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which of the following drugs requires cool temperature for storage

• a) Oxytocin b) Vaccines c) PRBC d) Ampicillin

• Q.2 The glucose memory test is

• a) GCT b) HBA1C c) GTT d) SGPT

• Q.3 _________ is responsible for yellow colouring in jaundice

• a) Urobilinogen b) Carotene c) Bilirubin d) AST

• Q.4 VED analysis of inventory control stands for

• a) Value, Engineering and desirable b) Value, Essential and Desirable

• c) Vital, Essential, and Desirable d) Value, Essential, and Demand

• Q.5 Which is a life-saving drug used in an emergency

• a) Nimesulide b) Adrenaline c) Ranitidine d) Glimipiride

• Q.6 Sodium, Potassium, and Magnesium are used in TPN as

• a) Energy Source b) Electrolytes c) Trace Elements d) All

• Q.7 Radio pharmaceuticals are stored in

• a) Refrigerator b) Lead Shielding c) Ambient Temperature d) None of the above

• Q.8 The phase of interaction of tetracycline and aluminium hydroxide

• a) Absorption b) Distribution c) Metabolism d) Excretion

• Q.9 In liver damage, there is an increased level of

• a) WBCs b) RBC c) Platelets d) SGPT

• Q.10 The oral dosage form of laxative Bisacodyl is not given with milk or antacid because

• a) Absorption of antacid decreases. b) Bisacodyl chelates with milk

• c) Lead to irritation due to release of drug in the stomach d) All of the above

• Q.11 NABH stands for ______________

• Q.12 Antipyretics are defined as______________

• Q.13 AMI stands for__________________

• Q.14 Oncologists are _______________

• Q.15 Increase in the number of RBC is known as _________

• Q.16 Normal value of serum total bilirubin_________

• Q.17 Spirometry is used ______________

• Q.18 In which country Uppasala Monitoring Centre located ____________

• Q.19 Abbreviation SOS in prescription means _____________

• Q.20 Purpose of milk of magnesia in universal antidote ______________

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Describe different services offered by hospitals.

• Q.22 Discuss the role of the pharmacist in preventing antimicrobial resistance.

• Q.23 Enumerate different cold chain equipment.

• Q.24 Summarize commonly used drugs in the ICU and CCU.

• Q.25 Describe the benefits and risks of TPN.

• Q.26 Discuss computer applications in pharmaceutical management.

• Q.27 Describe the therapeutic drug monitoring system.

• Q.28 Explain the management of heavy metal poisoning.

• Q.29 Discuss pharmacovigilance and ICH regulation.

• Q.30 Describe the reasons for drug interactions.

• Q.31 Discuss liver function tests with their significance.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Explain Good Pharmacy practice in detail.

• Q.33 Describe the roles, objectives, and functions of PTC

• Q.34 Discuss the purchase and inventory system of a hospital

• Q.35 Describe the drug distribution system for IPD patients in the hospital.

• Q.36 What is radioactive waste management? Describe the classification of radioactive waste.

• Q.37 Classify different medication errors.

• Q.38 Explain the role of the pharmacist in patient counseling.

Subject: Pharmacy Law & Ethics ER20-26T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple choice questions.

All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 For the first time in India, a chemist shop was opened in about 1811 by

• a) Mr. Bathgate b) Mr. Gajjar c) R.N. Chopra d) Mr. Gosh

• Q.2 The Pharmacy Council reconstituted every

• a) 10 years b) 15 years c) 5 years d) 6 years

• Q.3 Schedule "X" of the Drug & Cosmetics Act Comprises

• a) List of incurable diseases b) Guideline for clinical trials

• c) List of generic drugs d) None of the above

• Q.4 AS per the Drug & Cosmetics Act, Schedule "FF" is related to

• a) Paranteral Preparation b) Ointment Formulation

• c) Skin cosmetics Preparation d) Ophthalmic Preparation

• Q.5 In 1985, one of the following acts was passed

• a) Drug & magic remedies b) Poisonous Act

• c) Narcotic & Psychotropic Substances Act d) Drug & Cosmetics Act

• Q.6 Talisman, mantra, & Kanawha come under

• a) Misbranded Drugs b) Spurious Drugs c) Magic Remedies d) None of the above

• Q.7 The Animal Welfare Board is established by

• a) Central Government b) State Government c) Central Council d) State Council

• Q.8 The latest Drug Price Control Order was passed by

• a) 2012 b) 2013 c) 2015 d) 2014

• Q.9 It means a science of morals or a code of moral principles

• a) Ethics b) Morality c) Law d) Pharmaceutical ethics

• Q.10 The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission headquarters is located at

• a) Delhi c) Hyderabad b) Ghaziabad d) Mumbai

• Q.11 CDSCO means____________

• Q.12 Write the regulatory body of Australia.

• Q.13 IPR mean_____________

• Q.14 How many phases are involved in a clinical trial?

• Q.15 License for blood storage Centre is valid for________

• Q.16 Human anatomical wastes are categorized into which category of biomedical waste_________

• Q.17 The Disaster management act was made in___________

• Q.18 The national Disaster management is headed by__________

• Q.19 ICH means _____________

• Q.20 DTAB means ____________

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Write the classification of medical devices with an example.

• Q.22 Write the names of consumer protection councils

• Q.23 Explain principles of bioethics.

• Q.24 Define biomedical waste. Enlist the categories of biomedical waste.

• Q.25 Write the objective of the Clinical Establishment Act.

• Q.26 Write a short note on NDA.

• Q.27 Write a short note on the Loan License.

• Q.28 Write the qualification, Drug Inspector.

• Q.29 Write a short note on Licensing Authority.

• Q.30 Mention the ex officio member of PCI.

• Q.31 Write a short note on Clinical trial phase-IV

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Give the offense & penalties as per the Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic Substances Act.

• Q.33 Write the function of the Animal Welfare Board of India.

• Q.34 What are the duties & function of FSSAI?

• Q.35 Write a note on the calculation of the retail Price of a schedule formation.

• Q.36 Write a note on the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act.

• Q.37 Explain in brief the new drug development process.

• Q.38 Write a note on e-governance of drug manufacture.

• Dr ALOK BAINS