MCQs: Body Fluids, Blood, Hemopoiesis, Hemoglobin Formation, Coagulation, Blood Grouping, Rh Factor & Transfusion

1. Total body water in a healthy adult male constitutes approximately

A. 40% of body weight
B. 50% of body weight
C. 60% of body weight
D. 70% of body weight

Answer: C. 60% of body weight

2. Which compartment contains the largest fraction of total body water?

A. Plasma
B. Interstitial fluid
C. Intracellular fluid
D. Transcellular fluid

Answer: C. Intracellular fluid

3. The major cation of intracellular fluid is

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium

Answer: B. Potassium

4. Which ion is the principal extracellular cation?

A. Potassium
B. Magnesium
C. Sodium
D. Calcium

Answer: C. Sodium

5. The normal hematocrit value in an adult male is approximately

A. 20–25%
B. 30–35%
C. 40–50%
D. 55–65%

Answer: C. 40–50%

6. Which plasma protein is primarily responsible for maintaining colloidal osmotic pressure?

A. Globulin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Albumin
D. Prothrombin

Answer: C. Albumin

7. A patient with severe liver disease develops generalized edema mainly due to decreased

A. Fibrinogen
B. Albumin
C. Platelets
D. Hemoglobin

Answer: B. Albumin

8. Which leukocyte is most abundant in normal peripheral blood?

A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophils

Answer: D. Neutrophils

9. Increased eosinophil count is most commonly associated with:

A. Viral infections
B. Allergic disorders and parasitic infestations
C. Bacterial infections
D. Anemia

Answer: B. Allergic disorders and parasitic infestations

10. The lifespan of a circulating erythrocyte is approximately

A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days

Answer: D. 120 days

11. Erythropoietin is primarily produced by

A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Kidney
D. Spleen

Answer: C. Kidney

12. Which vitamin is essential for DNA synthesis during erythropoiesis?

A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin E

Answer: C. Vitamin B12

13. Deficiency of intrinsic factor results in impaired absorption of

A. Iron
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin K

Answer: B. Vitamin B12

14. The first committed precursor in erythropoiesis is

A. Hemocytoblast
B. Proerythroblast
C. Reticulocyte
D. Normoblast

Answer: B. Proerythroblast

15. Reticulocytes differ from mature RBCs because they

A. Contain nuclei
B. Contain residual RNA
C. Synthesize antibodies
D. Produce clotting factors

Answer: B. Contain residual RNA

16. Which element forms the central atom of the heme molecule?

A. Copper
B. Zinc
C. Iron
D. Magnesium

Answer: C. Iron

17. Hemoglobin synthesis requires all except

A. Iron
B. Vitamin B12
C. Amino acids
D. Vitamin K

Answer: D. Vitamin K

18. One molecule of hemoglobin can maximally bind

A. 1 oxygen molecule
B. 2 oxygen molecules
C. 4 oxygen molecules
D. 8 oxygen molecules

Answer: C. 4 oxygen molecules

19. The normal hemoglobin concentration in adult males is approximately

A. 8–10 g/dL
B. 10–12 g/dL
C. 13–18 g/dL
D. 20–25 g/dL

Answer: C. 13–18 g/dL

20. Which clotting factor is known as the Hageman factor?

A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor X
D. Factor XII

Answer: D. Factor XII

21. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by activation of

A. Factor III
B. Factor VII
C. Factor XII
D. Factor X

Answer: C. Factor XII

22. Tissue thromboplastin is another name for

A. Factor II
B. Factor III
C. Factor V
D. Factor VIII

Answer: B. Factor III

23. Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin is catalyzed by

A. Prothrombin
B. Thrombin
C. Factor VII
D. Plasmin

Answer: B. Thrombin

24. Which vitamin is essential for hepatic synthesis of prothrombin?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K

Answer: D. Vitamin K

25. Calcium ions participate in

A. Intrinsic pathway only
B. Extrinsic pathway only
C. Common pathway only
D. Multiple steps of coagulation

Answer: D. Multiple steps of coagulation

26. The final stable product of blood coagulation is

A. Prothrombin
B. Thrombin
C. Fibrin meshwork
D. Platelet plug

Answer: C. Fibrin meshwork

27. Which blood group is called the universal donor for packed red cells?

A. A negative
B. B negative
C. AB negative
D. O negative

Answer: D. O negative

28. Which blood group is considered the universal recipient for packed red cells?

A. O positive
B. A positive
C. AB positive
D. B positive

Answer: C. AB positive

29. An individual with blood group A possesses

A. A antigen and anti-A antibody
B. A antigen and anti-B antibody
C. B antigen and anti-A antibody
D. No antigen and anti-A antibody

Answer: B. A-antigen and an anti-B antibody

30. A person with blood group O has

A. Both A and B antigens
B. Only A antigen
C. Only B antigen
D. Neither A nor B antigens

Answer: D. Neither A nor B antigens

31. Which blood group contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies?

A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

Answer: D. O

32. Agglutination during blood grouping occurs due to interaction between

A. Antigen and enzyme
B. Antigen and antibody
C. Hemoglobin and antibody
D. Platelet and fibrinogen

Answer: B. Antigen and antibody

33. The Rh factor was first discovered in

A. Rabbits
B. Monkeys
C. Sheep
D. Dogs

Answer: B. Monkeys

34. The most immunogenic Rh antigen is

A. C antigen
B. c antigen
C. D antigen
D. E antigen

Answer: C. D antigen

35. An Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus is at greatest risk of producing anti-Rh antibodies

A. During first pregnancy before delivery
B. During first pregnancy after sensitization at delivery
C. Before conception
D. During implantation only

Answer: B. During first pregnancy after sensitization at delivery

36. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is primarily caused by maternal

A. IgM antibodies against ABO antigens
B. IgG antibodies against the Rh antigen
C. IgA antibodies against RBCs
D. Complement deficiency

Answer: B. IgG antibodies against the Rh antigen

37. Administration of anti-D immunoglobulin to an Rh-negative mother prevents

A. ABO incompatibility
B. Platelet destruction
C. Rh sensitization
D. Iron deficiency

Answer: C. Rh sensitization

38. Which antibody class can readily cross the placenta?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG

Answer: D. IgG

39. Cross-matching before blood transfusion is primarily performed to

A. Determine hemoglobin concentration
B. Assess clotting time
C. Detect donor-recipient incompatibility
D. Count leukocytes

Answer: C. Detect donor-recipient incompatibility

40. Immediate transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility is mainly characterized by

A. Enhanced erythropoiesis
B. Acute intravascular hemolysis
C. Leukocytosis
D. Polycythemia

Answer: B. Acute intravascular hemolysis

41. A patient has blood group AB negative. Which of the following packed RBC units is safest in an emergency?

A. A positive
B. B positive
C. O negative
D. AB positive

Answer: C. O negative

Concept: Rh-negative recipients should ideally receive Rh-negative blood; O-negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens.

42. Which sequence correctly represents the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

A. XII → XI → IX → VIII → X
B. XII → IX → XI → VIII → X
C. VII → X → V → II
D. III → VII → X → II

Answer: A. XII → XI → IX → VIII → X

43. Iron deficiency anemia primarily impairs synthesis of

A. Globin chains
B. Plasma proteins
C. Heme portion of hemoglobin
D. Erythropoietin

Answer: C. Heme portion of hemoglobin

44. Which cell type ultimately gives rise to all formed elements of blood?

A. Proerythroblast
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Hemocytoblast
D. Reticulocyte

Answer: C. Hemocytoblast

45. A patient has blood group B. His plasma contains

A. Anti-A antibodies only
B. Anti-B antibodies only
C. Anti-A and anti-B antibodies
D. No antibodies

Answer: A. Anti-A antibodies only

Exam POINTS TO

Remember:

• ICF = K⁺ rich; ECF = Na⁺ rich

• Albumin maintains oncotic pressure

• Kidney → Erythropoietin

• Factor XII starts the intrinsic pathway

• Factor III (Tissue thromboplastin) starts the extrinsic pathway

• Factor II = Prothrombin

• Factor I = Fibrinogen

• O⁻ = Universal donor

• AB⁺ = Universal recipient

• Rh incompatibility → Hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Dr Alok Singh