D. Pharm 2nd Year, Board of Technical Education, PCI curriculum, Sample Papers, All Subjects. Pharmacology, Community Pharmacy & Management, Biochemistry & Clinical Pathology, Pharmacotherapeutics, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy.

Pharmacology Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 ER20-21T 2nd Year / Pharmacy

• SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 A drug showing zero-order kinetics will:

• a) Show constant plasma level b) Have fixed half-life

• c) Be eliminated at a constant rate d) None

• Q.2 Which of the following statements best describes a prodrug?

• a) Inactive form needing conversion b) Active at the receptor

• c) Non-specific binder d) Antagonist

• Q.3 A patient on propranolol develops bradycardia. This is due to:

• a) a-blockade b) ß1-receptor blockade

• c) CNS stimulation d) Anticholinergic effect

• Q.4 Which combination is rational for treating Myasthenia Gravis?

• a) Atropine + Diazepam b) Neostigmine + Epinephrine

• c) Neostigmine + Atropine d) Adrenaline alone

• Q.5 NSAIDs should be avoided in peptic ulcer because:

• a) They inhibit H2 b) Increase mucus c) Increase acid secretion d) Inhibit COX-1

• Q.6 In Parkinsonism, Levodopa is always combined with:

• a) Bromocriptine b) Carbidopa c) Entacapone d) Amantadine

• Q.7 Which of the following shows both bronchodilator and anti-inflammatory effects?

• a) Adrenaline b) Montelukast c) Salbutamol d) Hydrocortisone

• Q.8 The mechanism of action of omeprazole involves:

• a) H2 receptor blockade b) Gastrin antagonism

• c) Proton pump inhibition d) M1 receptor blockade

• Q.9 Which is NOT a component of pharmacokinetics?

• a) Distribution b) Excretion c) Metabolism d) Mechanism of action

• Q.10 A child with a fever is prescribed aspirin. This may cause:

• a) Stevens-Johnson Syndrome b) Reye's syndrome c) Tinnitus d) Hyperkalemia

• Q.11 Which drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

• a) Pyrimethamin b) Sulfamethoxazole c) Isoniazid d) Streptomycin

• Q.12 Which of the following antipsychotics is least likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms?

• a) Haloperidol b) Risperidone c) Olanzapine d) Clozapine

• Q.13 Which of the following shows post-antibiotic effect?

• a) Penicillin b) Erythromycin c) Ciprofloxacin d) Tetracycline

• Q.14 Which of the following drugs causes gingival hyperplasia?

• a) Phenytoin b) Carbamazepine c) Diazepam d) Valproate

• Q.15 Corticosteroids are avoided in systemic fungal infections because:

• a) Increase resistance c) Cause dehydration b) Impair immunity d) Stimulate fungi

• Q.16 Which of the following is not a contraindication for beta-blockers?

• a) Asthma c) Bradycardia b) Angina d) AV block

• Q.17 The drug of choice for partial seizures:

• a) Diazepam b) Phenobarbital c) Phenytoin d) Levetiracetam

• Q.18 The antidote for organophosphorus poisoning is:

• a) Naloxone b) Atropine + Pralidoxime c) Neostigmine d) Flumazenil

• Q.19 Which drug can precipitate a hypertensive crisis if taken with tyramine-rich foods?

• a) Selegiline c) Fluoxetine b) Diazepam d) Amitriptyline

• Q.20 The drug that competes with uric acid for reabsorption in the tubules is:

• a) Colchicine c) Probenecid b) Allopurinol d) Naproxen

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Compare and contrast enzyme induction and inhibition with one example of each.

• Q.22 Classify adrenergic drugs and mention any two clinical uses.

• Q.23 Write short notes on mydriatics and miotics with one example each.

• Q.24 Explain the rationale behind combining Levodopa with Carbidopa.

• Q.25 What are the common adverse effects of corticosteroids? Mention their clinical significance.

• Q.26 Classify anti-hypertensive drugs and name one drug from each class.

• Q.27 Explain the pharmacological actions and clinical uses of salbutamol.

• Q.28 Mention the mechanism of action and one therapeutic use of furosemide.

• Q.29 Classify oral hypoglycaemic agents with examples.

• Q.30 Write a short note on autacoids with suitable examples.

• Q.31 Define biological agents and give examples of any two types.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Explain the pharmacokinetic processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion with examples.

• Q.33 Classify cholinergic and anticholinergic drugs. Explain the pharmacological actions of atropine.

• Q.34 Discuss the mechanism of action, therapeutic uses, and side effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

• Q.35 Describe the types and uses of antiarrhythmic drugs with a note on contraindications.

• Q.36 Discuss the pharmacology of anti-coagulants with special reference to heparin and warfarin.

• Q.37 Define and classify antifungal agents. Explain the mechanism of action and uses of ketoconazole.

• Q.38 Classify anti-ulcer agents and discuss the mechanism of proton pump inhibitors with clinical applications.

Community Pharmacy & Management Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 ER20-22T 2nd Year

SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory. (20x1=20)

• Q.1 What does the term “medication adherence” refer to?

• a) Taking multiple medications b) Following prescription directions

• c) Avoiding side effects d) Switching brands frequently

• Q.2 What does LASA stand for in pharmacy practice?

• a) Look-Alike Sound-Alike b) Least Active Sterile Agent

• c) Local Alert Safety Access d) Line Against Storage Alerts

• Q.3 What is the main goal of patient counseling?

• a) To promote brands b) To confuse patients

• c) To improve adherence and safety d) To advertise

• Q.4 Which one represents a barrier to effective patient communication?

• a) Active listening b) Clarity c) Empathy d) Jargon

• Q.5 The pharmacist notices increased sales of iron Weight check supplements. Which health service can be planned?

• a) diabetes screening b) Dental screening c) Anaemia camp d) Cancer test

• Q.6 You are tasked with designing a patient counselling tool for illiterate patients. What should be prioritized?

• a) Complex language b) Audio/ Visual pictograms c) Brand logos d) Dosage charts only

• Q.7 A pharmacist receives conflicting prescriptions from two doctors. What is the best decision?

• a) Follow the older one b) Dispense both c) Contact both prescribers d) Ask patient to choose

• Q.8 A new pharmacy wants to build public trust quickly. What is the best strategic focus area?

• a) Ethical personalized care b) Price wars c) Celebrity endorsements d) No follow-up policy

• Q.9 What is the first step in medication counselling for asthma?

• a) Ask about allergies b) Demonstrate inhaler c) Recommend OTCs d) Check patient's BP

• Q.10 Why should patients be educated on possible side effects of medications?

• a) Create fear b) Promote brands c) Ensure awareness & safety d) Reduce sales

• Q.11 What is the key role of the community pharmacist in disaster management?

• a) Selling masks b) Stockpiling drugs

• c) doing health camps d) Ensuring continuity of therapy

• Q.12 Why should a pharmacist explain the dosage schedule to elderly patients carefully?

• a) Legal duty b) They forget easily c) To market brands d) No reason

• Q.13 In a rural area, how can a community pharmacist promote vaccination awareness?

• a) Wait for patients b) Display vaccine price

• c) Conduct outreach programs d) Sell related drugs

• Q.14 During counselling, which indicator confirms that the patient has understood instructions?

• a) Smiling b) Asking questions c) Leaving early d) Nodding only

• Q.15 A community pharmacist organizes a health fair. What is its broader role?

• a) Hospital tie-up c) Public health advocacy b) Brand promotion d) Student training

• Q.16 A pharmacy wants to start online counselling. Which regulation must be followed?

• a) MCI Rules b) D & C Act c) Food Law d) IT Act & PCI Guidelines

• Q.17 A diabetic patient asks for herbal remedies. What should the pharmacist do first?

• a) Ignore the query. b) Explain risks. c) Recommend a brand. d) Refer to the doctor.

• Q.18 A pharmacy staff member sells prescription drugs without proper verification. This violates which concept?

• a) Communication c) Ethics & SOP b) Inventory control d) Procurement rules

• Q.19 A prescription error occurs due to similar drug names. How should the pharmacist address this?

• a) Send wrong medicine carefully b) Blame the doctor c) Use LASA alert stickers d) Ignore

• Q.20 What is the possible consequence of ignoring inventory stock rotation?

• a) Increase sales b) Expired drugs dispensed c) Faster service d) Improved packaging

SECTION-B Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 What are the essential documents required to open a retail pharmacy store?

• Q.22 Describe the contents of a standard prescription.

• Q.23 Differentiate between adherence and compliance with suitable examples.

• Q.24 What is a dispensing error? List two ways to prevent it.

• Q.25 Define LASA drugs and explain their significance.

• Q.26 Define inventory. Name two techniques used in pharmacy inventory control.

• Q.27 List three key elements of a standard counselling session.

• Q.28 What role does a pharmacist play in pharmacovigilance at the community level?

• Q.29 What is self-medication? Mention two risks associated with it.

• Q.30 What are the pharmacist's responsibilities in ensuring rational drug use?

• Q.31 How would you handle a situation where a patient insists on a non-recommended drug?

SECTION-C Note: Long answer type questions. Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Develop a communication plan for counselling an elderly patient with multiple comorbidities.

• Q.33 Outline the procedures to handle dispensing errors in a community pharmacy.

• Q.34 Explain how CRM (Customer Relationship Management) can enhance pharmacy service delivery.

• Q.35 Discuss the significance of EOQ and ABC analysis in pharmacy inventory management.

• Q.36 Design a step-wise SOP for the safe storage of temperature-sensitive medicines.

• Q.37 What strategies can be adopted to overcome barriers to medication adherence in patients with mental illness?

• Q.38 Analyze the role of the community pharmacist in bridging the gap between healthcare access and affordability.

Biochemistry & Clinical Pathology ER20-22T 2nd Year / Pharmacy Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which test is used to identify reducing sugars in urine?

• a) Biuret c) Benedict's b) Molisch d) Ninhydrin

• Q.2 What is the energy currency of the cell?

• a) ATP b) Lactate c) Urea d) Creatinine

• Q.3 Enzyme deficiency in lactose intolerance is:

• a) Sucrase b) Amylase c) Maltase d) Lactase

• Q.4 Vitamin associated with night blindness;

• a) B1 b) A c) D d) K

• Q.5 Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed in:

• a) Plasma b) Lymph c) Liver d) Fat tissues

• Q.6 Direction of DNA synthesis is:

• a) 3'-3' b) 5'-3' c) 3'-5' d) 2'-5'

• Q.7 Lipoproteins are involved in the transport of:

• a) Amino acids b) Sugars c) Lipids d) Enzymes

• Q.8 Which enzyme is elevated in pancreatitis?

• a) Lipase b) LDH c) ALT d) AST

• Q.9 The end product of anaerobic glycolysis: a) Lactate c) Glucose

• Q.10 High BUN is a marker for:

• a) Liver disease c) Anemia b) Acetyl-CoA d) Urea b) Diabetes d) Renal failure

• Q.11 Creatinine clearance assesses:

• a) Liver b) Enzyme c) Kidney

• Q.12 Saponification test detects:

• a) Proteins c) Sugars d) RBCs b) Lipids d) Nucleic acids

• Q.13 Enzyme inhibitors acting on the active site are:

• a) Competitive b) Non-competitive c) Substrate d) Irreversible

• Q.14 Alkaptonuria is due to a defect in the metabolism of:

• a) Glucose b) Tyrosine c) Uric acid

• Q.15 Rothera's test is used for:

• a) Glucose c) Ketones d) Creatinine b) Protein d) Electrolytes

• Q.16 A vitamin with antioxidant properties:

• a) E b) D c) A d) K

• Q.17 Enzyme associated with transamination:

• a) LDH b) ALT c) AST d) PLP

• Q.18 Vitamin B12 requires _________ for absorption.

• a) Iron b) Bile salt c) Intrinsic factor d) Na

• Q.19 Glucose in ORS is required to:

• a) Give energy + + b) Help Na absorption c) Preserve ORS d) Adjust pH

• Q.20 An electrolyte affecting heart rhythm:

• a) Calcium b) Sodium c) Potassium d) Phosphate

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Classify carbohydrates with suitable examples.

• Q.22 Mention three properties of enzymes relevant in diagnostics.

• Q.23 State three functions of lipoproteins.

• Q.24 Explain the role of coenzymes in enzymatic reactions.

• Q.25 What is the function of iron in metabolism?

• Q.26 Write three clinical uses of Vitamin C.

• Q.27 Mention three biochemical features of Rickets.

• Q.28 Define ketonuria and state its biochemical cause.

• Q.29 Explain the diagnostic utility of creatinine levels.

• Q.30 What is ORS? Write its composition and use.

• Q.31 Define thrombocytopenia and mention its causes.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe the biochemical classification of lipids. Add clinical relevance of phospholipids.

• Q.33 Explain the competitive and non-competitive inhibition of enzymes with graphs.

• Q.34 Describe the structure and function of DNA and RNA.

• Q.35 Explain the role of Vitamin D, its metabolism, and deficiency disorders.

• Q.36 Outline the steps of glycolysis and the difference between aerobic and anaerobic pathways.

• Q.37 Write in detail about abnormal constituents of urine and their diagnostic significance.

• Q.38 Elaborate on the biochemical role of biotechnology in diagnostics and drug development.

Pharmacotherapeutics ER20-24T 2nd Year / Pharmacy Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 B12 The Schilling test is used to determine deficiency of:

• a) b) Iron c) Folic Acid d) Vitamin D

• Q.2 For migraine prophylaxis, which drug is most appropriate? a) c) Triptan Propranolol b) Aspirin d) Acetaminophen

• Q.3 Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson's disease?

• a) Acetylcholine b) Dopamine c) Serotonin TB d) GABA

• Q.4 Which condition is an AIDS-defining illness

• a) Pneumonia b) Herpes c) Hepatitis B d) PCP

• Q.5 A 30-year-old woman with PCOS is advised to take metformin. This is because:

• a) Weight gain, b) Improves insulin resistance, c) Raises estrogen, d) Promotes ovulation

• Q.6 Which inflammatory marker is elevated in rheumatoid arthritis?

• a) ESR b) ALT c) GGT d) Amylase

• Q.7 The term “steatorrhea” refers to:

• a) Blood is urine b) Fatty stools c) Excessive salivation d) Bloating

• Q.8 Which vitamin deficiency is linked to megaloblastic anemia?

• a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin B12

• Q.9 Patient with CHF is prescribed furosemide. What is a major adverse effect to monitor?

• a) Hypoglycemia b) Hyperkalemia c) Hypokalemia drugs d) Hypercalcemia

• Q.10 Which class of drugs is first-Line for major depressive disorder?

• a) MAOIs b) SSRIs c) TCAs d) Benzodiazepines

• Q.11 Which bacteria causes syphilis?

• a) Trepoema pallidum b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) H. Pylori

• Q.12 Psoriasis is mainly treated using which class of drugs?

• a) Antivirals b) Antifungals c) Corticosteroids d) Antibacterials

• Q.13 Which of the following is a hallmark of psychosis?

• a) Tremor b) Hallucinations c) Fatigue d) Seizures

• Q.14 Which of these can be a complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?

• a) Retinopathy b) Nephropathy c) Neuropathy d) All of these

• Q.15 Which condition is associated with excessive uric acid accumulation?

• a) Gout b) Anemia c) Diabetes d) Hypertension

• Q.16 Which class of drugs blocks serotonin reuptake?

• a) SSRI b) TCA c) MAOI d) SNRI

• Q.17 Which eye condition involves increased intraocular pressure damaging the optic nerve?

• a) Cataract b) Retinopathy c) Glaucoma d) Astigmatism

• Q.18 In Alzheimer's disease, which of these neurotransmitters is primarily deficient?

• a) Acetylcholine b) Dopamine c) Serotonin d) GABA

• Q.19 Which diet modification helps in liver cirrhosis patients?

• a) High protein b) Low protein c) Low carb d) High fat

• Q.20 Which public health initiative is linked to tuberculosis control?

• a) DOTS b) NACO c) RNTCP d) Both A & C

SECTION-B

Note: Short answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Explain the role of standard treatment guidelines in therapeutic planning.

• Q.22 Explain the etiopathogenesis of asthma in detail.

• Q.23 Describe the etiopathogenesis of Iron deficiency anemia.

• Q.24 Explain the etiopathogenesis of glaucoma.

• Q.25 Explain the role of the DOTS strategy in tuberculosis control.

• Q.26 Outline non-pharmacological strategies to prevent COVID-19.

• Q.27 Describe H. Pylori-associated peptic ulcer etiopathogenesis.

• Q.28 Suggest dietary precautions in liver cirrhosis.

• Q.29 Define scabies and explain its spread and prevention.

• Q.30 Mention preventive tips for urinary tract infection recurrence.

• Q.31 Explain the importance of patient counselling in chronic illnesses.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Explain pathogenesis and step-wise pharmacotherapy in congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

• Q.33 Describe the classification, mechanism and therapeutic role of antidiabetic drugs.

• Q.34 Explain the etiopathogenesis, symptoms, and drug therapy of Crohn's disease.

• Q.35 Write in detail about the lifestyle and physiotherapy interventions in osteoarthritis management.

• Q.36 Write a detailed note on the DOTS strategy and challenges in tuberculosis control.

• Q.37 Describe antimicrobial resistance and explain major causes and control strategies.

• Q.38 Describe the pathophysiology and treatment of Parkinson's disease, including drug classification.

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Time 3 Hrs. M.M. 80 ER20-25T 2nd Year / D. Pharm

SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which document is essential during NABH audit for pharmacy services?

• a) c) Purchase Order b) Formulary Self assessment checklist d) ADR Report

• Q.2 The purpose of FIFO in hospital inventory is

• a) Minimize theft c) Ensure record keeping b) Avoid expiry loss d) Accelerate billing

• Q.3 The Infection Control Committee mainly functions to

• a) Prevent surgical errors c) Monitor HAIs b) Maintain drug schedule d) Conduct training

• Q.4 Tall Man lettering is implemented to:

• a) Prevent legal issues b) Meet FDA guidelines

• c) Increase brand recall Charcoal d) Avoid LASA errors

• Q.5 Universal antidote contains all except:

• a) b) Kaolin c) Magnesium d) Tannin

• Q.6 During clinical ward rounds, the pharmacist should:

• a) Monitor food supply c) Dispense medications b) Review prescriptions d) Supervise nurses

• Q.7 TPN therapy should be monitored for:

• a) Electrolyte imbalance b) Nutritional adequacy c) Infection d) All of the above

• Q.8 Medication error due to illegible handwriting is classified as:

• a) Dispensing error b) Prescribing error c) Administration error d) Transcription error

• Q.9 Drug of choice in acute angina management is :

• a) Atenolol b) Aspirin c) Nitroglycerin d) Amlodipine

• Q.10 VED analysis helps in :

• a) Inventory classification b) Waste disposal c) Product development d) Staff rotation

• Q.11 Clinical pharmacist contributes to:

• a) Nursing b) Surgery c) Drug monitoring d) Pathology

• Q.12 Which blood product is used in anaemia management?

• a) Platelet concentrate b) PRBC c) FFP d) Cryoprecipitate

• Q.13 Pharmacovigilance aims to:

• a) Promote sales b) Ensure cold storage c) Monitor ADRs d) Reduce manufacturing cost

• Q.14 Drug interaction between warfarin and aspirin is:

• a) Pharmacokinetic synergism b) Pharmacodynamic antagonism

• c) Therapeutic duplication d) None of the above

• Q.15 LASA stands for:

• a) Look-Alike Sound-Alike b) Long-Acting Short-Acting

• c) ) Local and systemic agents d) Line and Safety analysis

• Q.16 Automated Dispensing Systems help in:

• a) Manual verification c) Patient recruitment b) Error-Free supply d) Labeling only

• Q.17 Abbreviation HS on a prescription means:

• a) Half strength c) Before meals b) After dinner d) At bedtime

• Q.18 A cytotoxic drug should be handled in:

• a) Clean room c) Bio-Safety cabinet

• Q.19 EOQ is applied in hospitals for:

• a) Estimating staff size b) Pharmacy counter c) Optimizing purchase size

• d) Calculating patient load, assessing ADRs.

• Q.20 A patient with morphine overdose is treated with:

• a) Flumazenil c) Atropine b) Naloxone d) Phenytoin

SECTION-B Note:

Short answer type questions. Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Define hospital pharmacy and its major objectives.

• Q.22 List functions of the Pharmacy & Therapeutic Committee (PTC)

• Q.23 Describe the floor stock drug system and its advantages.

• Q.24 Enumerate labelling requirements for high-risk drugs.

• Q.25 Define ADR. State two causes and two consequences.

• Q.26 Why is sterility testing essential for hospital preparations?

• Q.27 Explain the role of a pharmacist in managing organophosphorus poisoning.

• Q.28 What are the steps to manage expired medicines in a hospital?

• Q.29 Explain VED analysis and its relevance in drug procurement.

• Q.30 Describe the role of the pharmacist in patient counselling for chronic therapy.

• Q.31 State the components of a drug information service.

SECTION-C

Long answer type questions. Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe the functions and layout of a hospital pharmacy.

• Q.33 Explain hospital drug distribution systems. Compare unit dose and floor stock.

• Q.34 Write a note on procurement & inventory control using ABC & VED.

• Q.35 Discuss Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) – process, components, complications.

• Q.36 Define medication errors. Explain Classification and prevention.

• Q.37 Describe handling, storage, and disposal of cytotoxic drugs.

• Q.38 What is pharmacovigilance? Explain its objectives and reporting methods.

  Dr Alok Bains