D. Pharm 2nd Year All subjects. Technical Education Department. PCI E R (Education Regulation) Sample Question Papers.

Pharmacology ER20-21T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year / Pharmacy                                            Ju24

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 What is the primary mechanism of action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?

• a) Enhancement of GABAergic neurotransmission

• b) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes

• c) Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors

• d) Activation of opioid receptors

• Q.2 Which class of drugs is commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure by inhibiting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)?

• a) Beta-Blockers b) Calcium channel blockers

• c) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors d) Diuretics

• Q.3 Which of the following drugs is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders?

• a) Diazepam b) Paroxetine c) Morphine d) Warfarin

• Q.4 Which neurotransmitter is primarily targeted by benzodiazepines, leading to their anxiolytic and sedative effects?

• a) Serotonin b) Dopamine c) GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) d) Norepinephrine

• Q.5 What is the mechanism of action of statins in the treatment of hypercholesterolemia?

• a) Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase b) Activation of lipoprotein lipase

• c) Blockade of histamine receptors d) Enhancement of bile acid synthesis

• Q.6 Which class of drugs is commonly used to relieve pain and induce anesthesia by blocking sodium channels in nerve cells?

• a) Opioids b) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

• c) Local anesthetics d) Antihistamines

• Q.7 Which drug is an antagonist at the mu opioid receptor and is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose?

• a) Naloxone b) Diazepam c) Furosemide d) Albuterol

• Q.8 Which type of diuretic is known to inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney?

• a) Thiazide diuretics b) Loop diuretics

• c) Potassium- sparing diuretics d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

• Q.9 Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by reducing stomach acid production?

• a) Metoprolol b) Renitidine c) Acetaminophen d) Insulin

• Q.10 Which class of drugs is used to treat bacterial infections by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

• a) Statins b) Beta-blockers c) Macrolides d) Penicillins

• Q.11 Define the term expectorant.

• Q.12 Define the term nootropics agent.

• Q.13 Define the term Tocolytic.

• Q.14 Give one example of a direct-acting cholinergic agonist.

• Q.15 What is the primary function of sodium bicarbonate when added to local anesthetic solutions?

• Q.16 The process by which a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated from the body is known as_________.

• Q.17 The primary site of drug metabolism in the body is the _______.

• Q.18 The study of how genetic factors influence an individual's response to drugs is called__________.

• Q.19 Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) reduce stomach acid production by inhibiting the proton pump in the _____ cells of the stomach.

• Q.20 _____ is a class of drugs that reduce inflammation and pain by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Write a short note on drugs used in Myasthenia Gravis.

• Q.22 Write five physiological responses of Histamine.

• Q.23 Explain the concept of drug absorption, and discuss factors that can influence drug absorption in the body.

• Q.24 Describe the difference between an agonist and an antagonist in the context of pharmacology. Provide an example of each.

• Q.25 Describe the mechanism of action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and provide examples of common NSAIDs and their uses.

• Q.26 Briefly explain the term "bioavailability" and discuss factors that can affect the bioavailability of a drug.

• Q.27 Briefly explain the types of Adverse Drug Reactions.

• Q.28 Describe the mechanisms of action and common uses of bronchodilators in the treatment of respiratory conditions.

• Q.29 List three different routes of drug administration and provide an example of a drug suitable for each route.

• Q.30 Discuss the pharmacological mechanisms of action and clinical uses of antiplatelet agents, with an emphasis on aspirin and clopidogrel.

• Q.31 Differentiate between local anesthetics and general anesthetics, including their routes of administration and mechanisms of action.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe three major classes of oral hypoglycaemic agents used in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. For each class, discuss its mechanisms of action and clinical indications.

• Q.33 Explain the pharmacological basis of antiemetic drugs used to manage nausea and vomiting. Describe three major classes of antiemetics and their mechanism of action.

• Q.34 Explain the pharmacological classification of cholinergic drugs and their mechanisms of action. Provide examples of drugs in each category and discuss their clinical applications in the management of various medical conditions.

• Q.35 Write a short note on glaucoma disease, including its types, and classify the drugs used in glaucoma.

• Q.36 Differentiate between the terms psychosis and neurosis. Differentiate typical and atypical antipsychotics with four examples each.

• Q.37 Classify Anti-arrhythmic drugs and their pharmacological actions.

• Q.38 Classify β-lactam antibiotics and write the indications of penicillin

Community Pharmacy and Management ER20-22T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year D. Pharm

SECTION-A. Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Skills, including relationships among people.

• a) Interpersonal skills b) Shelf-stickers c) Auxiliary labels d) Safety caps

• Q.2 Counter areas selected for prescription and dispensing them to patients are

• a) Transactions windows b) Counting tray c) Interpersonal skills d) Shelf stickers

• Q.3 A teenager-resistant cap

• a) Mark-up b) Unit price c) Safety caps d) Counting tray

• Q.4 The fee of a unit of medication (for instance, an ounce of a liquid cold medication)

• a) Counting tray b) Mark-up c) Unit price d) None of the above

• Q.5 A tray designed for counting pills

• a) Counting tray b) Mark-up c) Unit price d) shelf stickers

• Q.6 Exact warnings that are placed on filled prescriptions:

• a) Auxiliary labels b) RX label c) Warning label d) None of the above

• Q.7 A paperback in which the patient signs for the prescriptions, for legal and insurance purposes,

• a) Sig b) Signature log c) Auxiliary labels d) All of the above

• Q.8 The quantity of the retailer's sale value minus their buying price.

• a) Mark-up b) Mark-down c) Estimated price d) None of the above

• Q.9 Stickers with bar codes that can be scanned for inventory documentation

• a) Shelf-stickers b) Auxiliary labels c) Rx label d) All the above

• Q.10 Automated machinery that fills and labels pill bottles with precise amounts of ordered drugs

• a) Automated filling machines b) Robots c) Pharmacy containers d) All of the above

• Q.11 _______ are assistances concerning relationships between persons.

• a) Computer skills b) Data management skills c) Transaction skills d) Interpersonal skills

• Q.12 About 2/3 of all prescription remedies in the U.S. are dispensed by

• a) Community pharmacies b) Institutional pharmacies

• c) Hospital pharmacies d) Nursing home pharmacies

• Q.13 Additional technicians and D-pharmacists are hired in _______ than any other category of pharmacy.

• a) Community pharmacy b) Hospital pharmacy c) Mail order pharmacy d) Long-term care

• Q.14 Community drugstores that are independently owned local pharmacies are

• a) Food store pharmacies b) Mass merchandiser pharmacies

• c) Chain pharmacies d) Independent pharmacies

• Q.15 Community pharmacies, such as CVS and Walgreens, part of regional or national pharmacy chains, are

• a) Independent pharmacies b) Store pharmacies

• c) Chain pharmacies d) Mass merchandiser pharmacies

• Q.16 Community pharmacies that are part of regional or national food store chains, such as Giant Eagle and Kroger

• a) Mass merchandiser pharmacies b) Food store pharmacies

• c) Chain pharmacies d) Independent pharmacies

• Q.17 ______ require(s) community pharmacist to offer therapy to Medicaid patients concerning medicines

• a) Medicare Part D b) The 1990 Omnibus Budget and Reconciliation Act (OBRA)

• c) HIPAA d) The DEA

• Q.18 The HIPAA Laws

• a) Require pharmacists to offer counselling on all new medications

• b) Involves that health statistics be kept confidential

• c) Permits pharmacy staff to discuss a patient's well-being info outside the pharmacy

• d) None of the above

• Q.19 Individual states

• a) Do not control the practice of pharmacy.

• b) May involve national pharmacy technician certification or might have their own registration and certification process.

• c) Control the scope of pharmacy technician practice, including the proportion of pharmacists to technicians

• d) Both b and c

• Q.20 The refrigerator in a community drugstore may be used to store

• a) Drugs only b) Drugs and lunch for pharmacy personnel

• c) Drugs and sealed containers of soda pop d) Drugs and the pharmacist's lunch

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 List professional responsibilities of community pharmacists.

• Q.22 Tell the different ways of good dispensing practices.

• Q.23 Discuss the types of communication skills.

• Q.24 Discuss the different strategies to overcome non-adherence.

• Q.25 Discuss the site selection requirements in community pharmacy.

• Q.26 Why is counselling for OTC products necessary?

• Q.27 Discuss the term medication adherence.

• Q.28 How is the planning and management of finance carried out to run a community pharmacy?

• Q.29 Outline the distinguishing features between written and verbal communication skills.

• Q.30 Describe the different parts of a prescription.

• Q.31: Tell the advice suggested by the pharmacist for pain management.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Outline the role of a pharmacist in medication adherence. List the strategies to be adopted to overcome non-adherence.

• Q.33 Explain the different stages of patient counselling.

• Q.34 Summarize the history and development of community pharmacy. Compare the practice in the international and Indian scenarios.

• Q.35 Explain the handling of a prescription in detail.

• Q.36 Discuss the scope and importance of various health screening services in community pharmacy.

• Q.37 Describe self-medication. How is it linked to OTC drugs? Identify the role of pharmacists in promoting safe practices during self-medication.

• Q.38 Explain the accountancy in community pharmacy.

Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology ER20-23T. Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year / Pharmacy

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which one is an example of a conjugated Protein

• a) Albumin b) Fructose c) Glycoprotein d) Globulins

• Q.2 Which one is an example of Reducing Sugar

• a) Albumins b) Cellulose c) Starch d) Lactose

• Q.3 The iodine test is used for the identification of

• a) Carbohydrates b) Protein c) Vitamins d) Lipids

• Q.4 Dipeptide contains

• a) 2-amino acid units b) 5-Amino acid units c) 9-amino acid units d) 7-amino acid units

• Q.5 Which one is not an example of fat

• a) Butter b) Fat c) Beef fat d) Olive oil

• Q.6 Which one is not an example of Waxes

• a) Butter b) Lanoline c) Beeswax d) Carnauba Wax

• Q.7 RNA does not contain

• a) Thymine b) Adenine c) Guanine d) Cytosine

• Q.8 Which one is Xerophthol or retinol

• a) Glucose b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin C

• Q.9 Net gain of ATP in aerobic glycolysis:

• a) 1 ATP b) 7 ATP c) 5 ATP d) 8 ATP Q.10 Which one Vitamin is known as an antiaging or fertility factor?

• a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin B6

• Q.11 Define the term Monosaccharides

• Q.12 Saliwanoffs, a qualitative test is used for the identification of what.

• Q.13 Define the term Osteoporosis.

• Q.14 Mention one use of Vitamin C.

• Q.15 Define the term Lipids. Q.16 Define the term Nucleotide

• Q.17 Mention one use of iodine.

• Q.18 Mention one use of calcium.

• Q.19 Define the term Coenzyme

• Q.20 Mention the full form of ALP Test

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Write a brief note on Hyperammonemia

• Q.22 Write a brief note on Jaundice

• Q.23 Mention three biological roles of Amino Acids

• Q.24 Mention three uses of Vitamin C

• Q.25 Mention three functions of Phosphorus Q

• .26 Mention three functions of Water in the human body

• Q.27 Mention three differences between Competitive and Non-Competitive Enzyme inhibition.

• Q.28 Write a brief note on Oral Rehydration Therapy. Q.29 Write three functions of the liver. Q.30 Write a brief note on the clinical significance of the Lipid profile test.

• Q.31 Write a brief note on the Benzidine test.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Describe in detail Glycolysis.

• Q.33 Write a brief note on the definition, importance, & Scope of Biochemistry.

• Q.34 Describe in brief the Classification of Lipids.

• .36 Describe in detail the Biochemistry of Vitamin A, D & K

• Q.37 Write a detailed note on the structure and function of RNA.

• Q.38 Write a detailed note on the disease Diabetes

Pharmacotherapeutics ER20-24T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year / Pharmacy

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions.

All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a bacterium?

• a) Malaria b) HIV c) Gonorrhea d) Hepatitis

• Q.2 Which of the following is not a symptom of Psychosis?

• a) Hallucinations b) Delusions c) Disorganized speech or behavior d) Panic attacks

• Q.3 Define High Blood Pressure.

• a) A condition in which the blood receives too little oxygen, causing fatigue and other complications.

• b) A condition in which the force of blood pumping in the walls of the arteries is high enough to cause problems.

• c) Activation of ACE

• d) A condition in which blood volume is decreased.

• Q.4 Doctors place a stent inside the artery during angioplasty. A stent is a

• a) A new fragment of the artery b) A wire mesh tube

• c) A cotton tube d) A slow-release medicine capsule

• Q.5 Ischemia is:

• a) Restriction of blood supply to tissues b) Overflow of blood to tissues

• c) Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins d) The medical term for shortness of breath

• Q.6 What is Heart failure?

• a) A condition in which the heart stops beating

• b) A condition in which the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs

• c) A condition in which the heart starts beating quite rapidly

• d) A condition in which the patient experiences chest pain

• Q.7 Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) occurs in the ______.

• a) Chest b) Abdomen c) Leg d) Feet

• Q.8 MDRD stands for___________.

• a) Modification of Dye in Renal Disease b) Modification of Dimer in Renal Disease

• c) Modification of Delta in Renal Disease d) Modification of Diet in Renal Disease

• Q.9 What happens when a person has Anaemia?

• a) The body produces too much iron. b) The blood does not have enough red blood cells

• c) The blood becomes thick. d) Too many white blood cells are produced.

• Q.10 Which of the following drug use in the treatment of Epilepsy?

• a) Gabapentin b) Levodopa c) Donepezil d) Sumatriptan

• Q.30 What do you understand about Dysmenorrhea?

• Q.11 Mention Non-pharmacological treatment of Congestive Heart Failure.

• Q.12 What are the causative agents for Bronchitis?

• Q.13 Define Gestational Diabetes?

• Q.14 Clinical manifestation of Megaloblastic Anemia?

• Q.15 What is the range for stage-2 Hypertension?

• Q.16 Define Pharmacotherapeutics?

• Q.17 The type of Psoriasis that often starts in childhood and is characterized by small red individual spots on the trunk and limbs is_________

• Q.18 PCOS in women's health stands for_________

• Q.19 In polycystic Ovary Syndrome, which hormone level is elevated that increases the risk of Endometrial cancer?

• Q.20 Penicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus first occurred in which year?

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Explain clinical manifestations and complications of Hypertension.

• Q.22 Define Congestive heart failure and explain its management?

• Q.23 Explain the signs and symptoms and diagnosis of Angina.

• Q.24 Define Pharmacotherapeutics and give its scope and objective.

• Q.25 Explain the Etiopathogenesis of Asthma.

• Q.26 Define Migraine and Mention it clinical manifestations.

• Q.27 Mention the name of the HMG CoA reductase inhibitor drug and write down the non-pharmacological management of the disease for HMG CoA reductase inhibitor drug use.

• Q.28 Explain the Etiopathogenesis of GERD.

• Q.29 Discuss the anti-microbial resistance.

• Q.31 What factors are responsible for Pink eye disease, and mention its symptoms?

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Discuss the causative agent, Clinical manifestation, non-pharmacological and pharmacological management of Tuberculosis.

• Q.33 What is Diabetes Mellitus? Mention the non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatment of diabetes mellitus.

• Q.34 Define Inflammatory Bowel Disease. Mention its types, symptoms, & Medications also.

• Q.35 Write a short note on Musculoskeletal disorders.

• Q.36 Give the pathophysiology of the following: 1) PCOS, 2) Premenstrual Syndrome, 3) Glaucoma, 4) Anxiety.

• Q.37 Define the Viral infection and its common Etiopathogenesis and nonpharmacological management.

• Q.38 Write the non-pharmacological management for all diseases given below:

• a) Psychosis b) Eczema c) Iron deficiency anemia d) Alcoholic liver disease e) HIV

Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy ER20-2325T. Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year / Pharmacy

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Which of the following drugs requires cold temperature for storage

• a) Oxytocin b) Ampicillin c) Streptomycin d) Cloxacillin

• Q.2 Increased total bilirubin, especially direct bilirubin, indicates

• a) Influenza b) AMI c) Pancreatitis d) COPD

• Q.3 An increase in total leukocytes over the normal is called

• a) Leukemia b) Leucopenia c) Leukocytosis d) Pancytopenia

• Q.4 EOQ stands for

• a) Electronic Order Quantity b) Electronic Ordered Quantity

• c) Economic Order Quality d) Economic Order Quantity

• Q.5 Drug used in the critical setting of a hospital as an emergency

• a) Ranitidine b) Adrenaline c) Verapamil d) Glimipiride

• Q.6 Which of the following is not a component of TPN

• a) Amino Acids b) Fats c) Fibers d) None

• Q.7 Gold-198 is used in the treatment of

• a) Pernicious anaemia b) Rheumatoid Arthritis c) Thyroid functioning d) Detection of Tumor

• Q.8 Absorption of the drug from the GIT is more in the case of

• a) Ionic Drug b) Non-Ionic Drug c) Ionic and Non-Ionic Drug d) None of the above

• Q.9 Naloxone is used as an antidote in the poisoning of

• a) Barbiturates b) Cocaine c) Morphine d) Alcohol

• Q.10 Medicine to be taken on an empty stomach

• a) Ampicillin b) Nimesulide c) Naproxen d) Albendazole

• Q.11 NQAS stands for__________

• Q.12 Antineoplastic agents defined as _________

• Q.13 NICU stands for____________

• Q.14 Nephrologists are ___________

• Q.15 Type of WBC differential increases in allergic disorders________

• Q.16 Sphygmomanometer is used________

• Q.17 Abbreviation HS is prescription means__________

• Q.18 Normal range of Thrombocytes___________

• Q.19 Purpose of powdered charcoal in universal antidote ________

• Q.20 National Pharmacovigilance centre located at __________

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Define the role of a hospital pharmacist.

• Q.22 Describe Hospital Formulary and Formulary System in brief.

• Q.23 Explain the ideal storage conditions of medicines.

• Q.24 Discuss automated drug dispensing systems.

• Q.25 Differentiate between compounding and manufacturing a medicine.

• Q.26 How are radiopharmaceuticals dispensed?

• Q.27 Enumerate the software used in hospitals.

• Q.28 Describe the role of the clinical pharmacist.

• Q.29 Explain the management of organophosphorus compound poisoning.

• Q.30 Discuss LASA medicines.

• Q.31 Discuss various drug-food interactions.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Explain NABH accreditation standards and their benefits.

• Q.33 Describe the objectives and functions of the Infection Control Committee.

• Q.34 Discuss the purchase procedure and issues of medicines in pharmacy operations.

• Q.35 Describe the drug distribution system for IPD patients in the hospital.

• Q.36 Explain principles and procedures to provide pharmaceutical care.

• Q.37 Explain current methods of Pharmacovigilance. Q.38 Discuss pharmacodynamic drug interactions.

Pharmacy Law & Ethics ER20-26T. Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year / Pharmacy

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions.

All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 The OPIUM ACT was passed in the year.

• a) 1919 b) 1878 c) 1896 d) 1857

• Q.2 When did the Pharmacy Act 1948 come into force? a) 1 April 1949 b) 24 April 1948 c) 01 May 1949 d) 04 March 1948 Q.3 The State Pharmacy Council Haryana is situated a) Chandigarh b) Faridabad c) Panchkula d) Rohtak Q.4 Schedule C is related to a) List of biological & immunological products b) List of Homeopathy Product c) List of Ayurvedic Products d) List of Allopathic

• Q.5 Cocaine is obtained from

• a) Opium b) Hemp c) Coca d) None of the above

• Q.6 As per D&C Act Schedule O.

• a) List of the minimum equipment required for the running of the Pharmacy

• b) Life Period of the Drugs c) Standard for disinfectant fluids d) None of the above

• Q.7 Advertising the report of the Government Analyst is

• a) Exempted b) Permitted c) Prohibited d) None of the above

• Q.8 The Code of Pharmaceutical Ethics is developed by

• a) PCI b) D&C Act c) Both of them d) None of the above

• Q.9 The main object of the Poison Act is

• a) Control the import of the Poison b) Control the possession of the poison

• c) Control the sale of poison d) None of the above

• Q.10 Which authority issues the drug manufacturing license?

• a) CDSCO b) IPC c) AICTE d) UGC

• Q.11 Regulatory body of Europe ....................

• Q.12 Schedule R is related to ....................

• Q.13 How many elected members are in the Joint State Pharmacy Council?

• Q.14 Headquarters of ICH ....................

• Q.15 ANDA means ....................

• Q.16 Ethics means ....................

• Q.17 How many patients were involved in the clinical trial phase-3?

• Q.18 BCS means ....................

• Q.19 PAHO means ....................

• Q.20 The Disaster Management Authority is headed by ....................

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 What are the qualifications of a drug inspector?

• Q.22 Write the composition of DTAB. Q.23 Write a short note on Registered Pharmacist.

• Q.24 Describe in brief the offences & penalties of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act.

• Q.25 List key functions of CDSCO.

• Q.26 Define trademark and copyrights as per IPR.

• Q.27 Define Magic Remedy, Advertisement, and Opium.

• Q.28 What are the classes of drugs prohibited to import into India?

• Q.29 Discuss theories of Bio-ethics.

• Q.30 Discuss the regulatory aspects of the Medical Devices.

• Q.31 What are the functions of the State Authority of the Disaster Management Act 2005?

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Define PCI and illustrate the functions of PCI. Q.33 Write a note on the Poison Act.

• Q.34 Explain the redressal mechanism available to consumers under the Consumer Protection Act 1986 in brief.

• Q.35 Write a note on a pharmacist in relation to the medical profession.

• Q.36 Write the difference between Branded and Generic drugs.

• Q.37 Write a note on the standard operating procedures of the blood bank.

• Q.38 Write a note on the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC).

Dr Alok Bains