Sample Paper 6 D Pharm (Diploma Pharmacy), Technical Education Board, Examination, PCI Curriculum.

Pharmacology Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80 2nd Year / Pharmacy

• SECTION-A

• Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 Identify the drug inhibiting viral DNA synthesis:

• a) Interferon b) Saquinavir c) Amantadine d) Acyclovir

• Q.2 Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect:

• a) Cardiotoxicity b) Hepatotoxicity

• c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness d) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

• Q.3 Sulfonamides are effective against:

• a) Bacteria b) Actinomyces c) Protozoa d) All of the above

• Q.4 Bacteriostatic effect is:

• a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division b) Inhibition of young bacterial cells' growth

• c) Destruction of bacterial cells d) Formation of bacterial L-form

• Q.5 All of the following drugs are antibiotics, except:

• a) Streptomycin b) Penicillin c) Co-trimoxazole d) Chloramphenicol

• Q.6 Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism:

• a) Oral b) Sublingual c) Subcutaneous d) Rectal

• Q.7 Bioavailability of a drug refers to:

• a) Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

• b) Ratio of oral to parenteral dose

• c) Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces

• d) Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

• Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug:

• a) Hydralazine b) Clonidine c) Captopril d) Enalapril

• Q.9 Which of the following is true of 'Placebos':

• a) Placebo is a dummy medication

• b) Placebo is the inert material added to the drug to make tablets

• c) Placebos do not produce any effect

• d) All patients respond to placebos

• Q.10 For a patient suffering from a peptic ulcer, the safest non-opioid analgesic is:

• a) Celecoxib b) Diclofenac sodium c) Paracetamol d) Ibuprofen

• Q.11 Codeine is used clinically as:

• a) Analgesic b) Antitussive c) Anti-diarrhoeal d) All of the above

• Q.12 Dextromethorphan is an:

• a) Analgesic b) Antitussive c) Expectorant d) Antihistaminic

• Q.13 Budesonide is a:

• a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug b) High ceiling diuretic

• c) Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma d) Contraceptive

• Q.14 Metabolic rate of the following organ is not significantly affected by thyroxine:

• a) Brain b) Heart c) Liver d) Skeletal muscles

• Q.15 The drug of choice for hypoparathyroidism is:

• a) Parathormone b) Calcium lactate c) Vitamin D d) Pamidronate

• Q.16 Which of the following is a non-sedative anxiolytic:

• a) Chlorpromazine b) Buspirone c) Hydroxyzine d) Alprazolam

• Q.17 Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor:

• a) Selegiline b) Clorgyline c) Moclobemide d) Tranylcypromine

• Q.18 The antidepressant which selectively blocks 5-hydroxytryptamine uptake is:

• a) Fluoxetine b) Amoxapine c) Desipramine d) Dothiepin

• Q.19 Vasodilators are used to treat:

• a) Acute heart failure due to myocardial infarction

• b) Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction

• c) Chronic heart failure due to both systolic and diastolic dysfunction

• d) All of the above

• Q.20 Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when hypertension is accompanied by:

• a) Asthma b) Hyperuricaemia c) Diabetes d) Congestive heart failure

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Define biotransformation and factors influencing drug metabolism?

• Q.22 Write a short note on anti-cholinergic drugs?

• Q.23 Describe the pharmacological action of anti-anxiety drugs, also mention the dose and contraindications of these drugs.

• Q.24 Define and classify centrally acting muscle relaxants with their mechanism of action.

• Q.25 Define diuretics and explain loop diuretics with their mechanism of action.

• Q.26 Write a short note on Mydriatics or Antiplatelet drugs along with an example.

• Q.27 Define and explain the pharmacological action of Expectorants OR Anti-emetics.

• Q.28 Mention the adverse effects associated with 5-HT antagonists OR histamines.

• Q.29 Describe briefly about insulin OR penicillins.

• Q.30 Define biological agents and give their indications with examples.

• Q.31 Write in detail about anti-malarial agents.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Define and classify antibiotics along with suitable examples.

• Q.33 Describe the pharmacology of anti-adrenergics with two suitable examples.

• Q.34 Describe in detail the pharmacology of Vitamin D.

• Q.35 Describe in detail the advantages and disadvantages associated with the oral route of Administration.

• Q.36 Define and classify NSAIDs. Elaborate on the MoA and adverse effects associated with these drugs.

• Q.37 Describe oral hypoglycemic agents in detail.

• Q.38 Describe the mechanism of action of any two:

• a) Tetracyclines b) Anti-hypertensives c) Anti-Ulcer Drugs

Community Pharmacy and Management. ER20-22T Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A

Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 The primary role of a community pharmacist is

• a) Diagnosis of medical conditions b) Dispensing medications and counselling patients

• s c) Conducting surgical procedures d) Administering vaccinations

• Q.2 OTC drugs are

• a) Over-the-Counter b) Outpatient Treatment Centre

• c) Over-Treatment Control d) Outpatient Therapy Clinic

• Q.3 An example of a prescription-only medication?

• a) Aspirin b) Paracetamol c) Amoxicillin d) Antacid tablets

• Q.4 The practice of substituting a generic drug for a brand drug is known as

• a) Bioavailability b) Bio-pharmaceutics

• c) Pharmaceutical equivalence d) Generic substitution

• Q.5 The role of a formulary in a community pharmacy is

• a) Record patient profiles b) Document adverse reactions

• c) List approved drugs and dosages. d) Record dispensing errors.

• Q.6 A government agency in the United States regulates the practice of pharmacy.

• a) FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

• b) CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)

• c) DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration)

• d) WHO (World Health Organization)

• Q.7 Medication Therapy Management (MTM) in a community Pharmacy aims at

• a) Monitor medication adherence b) Manage pharmacy inventory

• c) Dispense controlled substances d) Conduct laboratory tests

• Q.8 The meaning of "Sig" on a prescription label is a

• ) Signature b) Dosage instructions c) Expiry Date d) Manufacturer's name

• Q.9 Checking a prescription for accuracy and appropriateness is known as

• a) Prescription validations b) Medication reconciliation c) Dispensing d) Prescription filling

• Q.10 An example of a pharmaceutical dosage form is?

• a) Syrup b) Blood pressure monitor c) Stethoscope d) Thermometer

• Q.11 Storage temperature for vaccines in the refrigerator falls in the range of

• a) 2-8 C (35.6-46.4F) b) 15-25 C (59-77F) c) Below 0 C (32F) d) 30-40 C (86-104F)

• Q.12 The DUR process is

• a) Drug Utilization Review b) Drug Usage Report

• c) Drug Utilization Record d) Drug Usage Review

• Q.13 Common side effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

• a) Hypertension b) Constipation c) Drowsiness d) Gastric irritation

• Q.14 The term "pharmacodynamics" refers to the study of

• a) Drug actions and effects within the body, b) Drug composition and formulation

• c) Drug interactions with food d) Drug metabolism in the liver

• Q.15 The acronym NDC in pharmacy stands for

• a) National Drug Code, b) New Drug Classification,

• c) Non-prescription Drug Code, d) National Dispensing Centre.

• Q.16 The organization that sets the standards for the accreditation of community pharmacy residency programs in the United States is?

• a) American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)

• b) American Pharmacists Association (APHA)

• c) National Association of Chain Drug Stores (NACDS)

• d) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

• Q.17 The responsibility of a pharmacy technician is?

• a) Diagnosing medical conditions b) Counselling patients on medications

• c) Dispensing medications d) Writing prescriptions

• Q.18 A "compliance aid" in pharmacy practice is designed to

• a) Assist patients in organizing and taking their medications b) Enhance medication taste

• c) Expedite the dispensing process, d) deliver medications via injections

• Q.19 In a community pharmacy, the purpose of a perpetual inventory system is

• a) Track real-time stock level and monitor losses or discrepancies

• b) Schedule medication deliveries from wholesalers

• c) Monitor expiration dates of medications d) Record patient prescription history

• Q.20 "Pharmaceutical care" in community pharmacy refers to:

• a) The provision of drug therapy and patient counselling to achieve a specific outcome,

• b) Overseeing the manufacturing of pharmaceutical products

• c) Monitoring adverse drug reactions

• d) Performing medication compounding in the pharmacy

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Tell the brief instructions on medication usage.

• Q.22 Discuss the dispensing process.

• Q.23 Outline the patient interview techniques.

• Q.24 Define patient information leaflets. List their uses.

• Q.25 Discuss vendor selection and ordering.

• Q.26 Identify the points of patient counselling for diabetes.

• Q.27 Discuss the legality of prescriptions.

• Q.28 How does early detection and referral of undiagnosed diseases contribute to health screening services in community pharmacy?

• Q.29 List the benefits of pharmacy operation software.

• Q.30 Illustrate the labelling of dispensed medications.

• Q.31 Write about the pharmacy design and interiors in a community pharmacy.

SECTION-C

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Discuss the dispensing error and strategies to minimize them.

• Q.33 Explain the concept of Good Pharmacy Practices and SOPS.

• Q.34 Summarize the various modes of verbal communication skills.

• Q.35 Discuss the headings a) Patient Package Inserts b) Advice for oral health

• Q.36 Discuss the factors influencing non-adherence.

• Q.37 Explain the need and role of pharmacists in OTC medication dispensing.

• Q.38 Discuss the legal requirements to set up a community pharmacy.

Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology ER20-23T 2nd Year / D Pharm Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

Section A: One-word/Multiple-choice questions. (20x1=20)

• Q1. Citric acid cycle, also known as...............

• Q2. DNA fragments are sealed by...................

• Q3. Write the full form of ORS Q4. ............ is known as milk sugar.

• Q5. Which of these is not a lipid?

• a) Wax b) Oils c) Proteins d) Fats

• Q.6 The functional unit of the kidney is?

• a) Hilum b) Neurons c) Medulla d) Nephrons

• Q.7 Vitamin B1, also known as......

• Q8. Aldosterone is stimulated as the response to increasing plasma.......

• Q9. Write the full form of AST

• Q10. Microcytic hypochromic anemia is a feature of all except

• a) Iron deficiency anemia, b) Sideroblastic anemias.

• c) Acute blood loss, d) Chronic blood loss

• Q11. Which one is an example of a monosaccharide?

• a) Glucose b) Starch c) Sucrose d) Lactose

• Q12. The removal of the amino group is known as.............

• Q13. The total number of essential vitamins required for the human body is

• a)15 b) 13 c) 12 d) 10

• Q14 Which vitamin helps in blood clotting?

• a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin E Q

• 15. Which enzyme is inhibited by an accumulation of long-chain fatty acids in the liver?

• a) Glucokinase b) Hexokinase c) Pyruvate kinase d) Phosphofructokinase

• Q16. Transamination reaction in the amino acid synthesis is catalyzed by an enzyme.

• a) Nitric oxide synthase b) Decarboxylase c) Aminotransferase d) Glutamate decarboxylase

• Q25. Mention the mechanism of action of enzymes.

• Q17. A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert

• a) Phenylalanine to tyrosine b) Phenylalanine to ketones

• c) Phenylalanine to lysine d) Phenylalanine to isoleucine

• Q18. Which of the following lipids is known as a neutral lipid?

• a) Triacylglycerol c) Phospholipids b) d) Steroids Wax

• Q19. Where does gluconeogenesis take place?

• a) Heart c) Stomach b) d) Lungs Liver

• Q20. An essential component for converting glucose to glycogen in the liver

• a) ATP, b) ADP, c) UTP, d) GTP.

Section B Note:

Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q21. Define Minerals. Give types and functions of minerals.

• Q22. What is the electron transport chain?

• Q23. Draw the chemical structure of a) Purine, b) Pyrimidine

• Q24. What is the denaturation of proteins?

• Q26. Write briefly about the functions and deficiency symptoms of calcium.

• Q27. What is Phenylketonuria? Mention its causes and symptoms.

• Q28. What is the composition of ORS?

• Q29. Define and classify lipids with suitable examples.

• Q30. Enlist any three essential functions of the liver and kidney.

• Q31. Draw the chemical structure of cholesterol along with its function in the body.

Section-C

Note: Long answer-type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q32. Describe the Glycolysis cycle or the Urea cycle and write its significance.

• Q33. Write the causes, symptoms, treatment, and prevention methods of dehydration.

• Q34. Define Lipoproteins. Mention its types, composition, and function in the body.

• Q35. Describe the qualitative test to identify carbohydrates OR lipids.

• Q36. Mention the dietary sources, functions, and deficiency manifestations of vitamin C.

• Q37. Write a note on the historical background of biotechnology.

• Q38. Explain β-oxidation of fatty acids in details

Pharmacotherapeutics ER20-24T Semester: 2nd Year Diploma Pharmacy Time: 3 Hrs.

Section A

Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory M.M.: 80 (20x1=20

• Q1. Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) is a group of symptoms that occur in women before the onset of which phase of the menstrual cycle?

• a) Menstrual bleeding phase b) Ovulation phase c) Follicular phase d) Luteal phase

• Q2. Dysmenorrhea is a medical term for:

• a)Painful periods, b) Irregular periods, c) Heavy periods, d) Absent periods.

• Q3. Flashes. Which skin condition is caused by a mite infestation? a) Psoriasis b) Scabies c) Eczema d) Rosacea

• Q4. Which of the following is not a symptom of bacterial conjunctivitis?

• a) Redness of the eye b) Watery discharge c) Itching of the eye d) Crusting of the eyelids

• Q5. Which virus is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis?

• a) Herpes simplex virus b) Human papillomavirus c) Adenovirus d) Influenza virus

• Q6. What is the most common type of glaucoma?

• a) Angle-closure glaucoma b) Normal-tension glaucoma

• c) Open-angle glaucoma d) Congenital glaucoma

• Q7. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat glaucoma?

• a) Propranolol b) Latanoprost c) Furosemide d) Aspirin

• Q8. Which of the following is not a symptom of depression?

• a) Increased appetite b) Lack of energy c) Loss of interest in pleasurable activities d) Feelings of guilt or worthlessness

• Q9. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?

• a) Heavy menstrual bleeding b) Infertility c) Painful menstrual cramps d) Hot.

• Q10. Which type of anxiety disorder involves experiencing unexpected panic attacks?

• a) Generalized anxiety disorder b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

• c) Panic disorder d) Social anxiety disorder

• Q11. Which of the following is not a symptom of psychosis? a) Hallucinations b) Delusions c) Disorganized speech or behaviour d) Panic attacks

• Q.12 COPD stands for____________

• Q.13 Syphillis is caused by_____________

• Q.14 Drug of choice for first-line treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus

• a) Glipizide b) Sitagliptin c) Acarbose d) Metformin

• Q.15 A specific unwanted side effect of L-DOPA is …………….

• Q.16 Full form of IBD ……………………..

• Q.17 All are H2 blockers except

• a) Cimetidine b) Omeprazole c) Famotidine d) Ranitidine

• Q18. Covid is caused by _________

• Q19. Full form of HIV is _________

• Q20. Cerebral Malariais caused by _______

Section B Note:

Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q21. Discuss pathophysiology and pharmacological treatment of asthma.

• Q22. Define the term anaemia and explain the etiopathogenesis of megaloblastic anaemia.

• Q23. Explain the objectives related to the rational use of medicines or evidence-based medicine.

• Q24. Discuss in brief the management of PCOS OR Glaucoma.

• Q25. Give the classification of congestive heart failure.

• Q26. What is Alzheimer’s Disease? Explain the pathophysiology and treatment of this disease. Q27. Classify diabetes and give a detailed account of its etiopathogenesis.

• Q28. Define the clinical manifestation of Parkinson’s disease OR Hepatitis.

• Q29. Describe the etiopathogenesis and non-pharmacological management of ulcerative colitis OR GERD. Q30. Discuss in detail iron deficiency anaemia and its treatment.

• Q31. Give a detailed account of osteoarthritis, describing the pathophysiology, diagnosis & treatment.

Section-C

Note: Long answer-type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q32. What are the pharmacological treatments of malaria OR Viral infections?

• Q33. What are the symptoms & pharmacological treatment for Anxiety OR Psychosis?

• Q34. Write down about the pathophysiology and treatment of conjunctivitis.

• Q35. Write short notes on any two: a. Peptic Ulcer b. Thyroid gland c. Depression

• Q36. Explain the pathophysiology and non-pharmacological treatment of angina OR Myocardial Infarction.

• Q37. Classify diuretics and elaborate on their mechanism of action.

• Q38. Explain in detail the clinical manifestations and pharmacological management of any two dermatological diseases.

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy ER20-25T 2nd Year / D. Pharm Time: 3 Hrs. M.M 80

Section A: One-word/multiple-choice questions. (20x1=20)

• Q1. What is NABH Accreditation?

• a) National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Healthcare Providers

• b) National Accreditation Board for Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians

• c) National Accreditation Board for Health and Safety

• d) None of the above

• Q2. What is Hospital Pharmacy?

• a) Pharmacy services provided outside the hospital setting

• b) Pharmacy services provided within the hospital setting

• c) Pharmacy services provided in community health centres

• d) Pharmacy services provided in ambulatory care centres

• Q3. What is the use of a hospital formulary?

• a) To restrict access to certain medications

• b) To promote the use of cost-effective medications

• c) To ensure the availability of essential medications

• d) All of the above

• Q4. What are some examples of drugs that may be included in a high-risk drug list?

• a) Antibiotics c) Narcotics b) Chemotherapy drugs d) All of the above

• Q5. What is bulk compounding?

• a) A process of preparing medications in large quantities

• b) A process of dispensing medications in bulk to patients

• c) A process of manufacturing medications on a large scale,

• d) A process of administering medications to patients

• Q6. Which of the following is a branch of medicine that focuses on the care of infants, children, and adolescents?

• a) Geriatrics b) Pediatrics c) Obstetrics d) Cardiologist

• Q7. What is antenatal care?

• a) Care provided to a woman during pregnancy

• b) Care provided to a woman during childbirth

• c) Care provided to a woman after childbirth

• d) Care provided to a woman after menopause

• Q8. What is an ICU?

• a) Intensive Care Unit b) Inpatient Care Unit

• c) Infection Control Unit d) Internal Communication Unit

• Q9. What is compounding in hospitals?

• a) A process of preparing and dispensing medications

• b) A process of manufacturing medications on a large scale.

• c) A process of administering medications to patients

• d) A process of storing medications in a hospital

• Q10. What does LASA stand for in relation to medication errors?

• a) Look-alike, sound-alike b) Least-active, strongest-active

• c) Long-acting, short-acting d) Low-dose, high-dose

• Q11. What is the significance of cardiac function tests in disease

• a) They evaluate the function of the liver. b) They evaluate the function of the kidneys

• c) They evaluate the function of the thyroid gland d) They evaluate the function of the heart

• Q12. What is the antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning?

• a) Naloxone c) Acetylcysteine b) Flumazenil d) Vitamin K

• Q13. What is an incompatibility in IV admixture services?

• a) When two or more medications cannot be mixed safely

• b) When a patient is allergic to a medication

• c) When a patient experiences a side effect from a medication.

• d) None of the above.

• Q14. Gray baby syndrome occurs due to the adverse reaction of

• a) Penicillin, c) Tetracycline, b) Chloramphenicol, d) Sulphonamide

• Q15. Which disease occurs due to Sulphonamide toxicity

• a) Red man syndrome b) Gray baby syndrome

• c) Loeffler’s syndrome d) Stevens-Johnson syndrome

• Q16. How many pharmacists are required for a 300-bed hospital?

• Q17. How many beds are required for a large-sized hospital?

• Q18. EDTA stands for…………

• Q19. Normal RBC range for women………...

• Q20. Eosinophils are the type of ………

Section B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q21. Give the classification of hospitals.

• Q22. What are the roles and responsibilities of a hospital pharmacist?

• Q23. Explain briefly about expired drug removal and handling. evaluation?

• Q24. Write down the difference between the FIFO and FEFO methods.

• Q25. Write a short note on Unit Dose Dispensing OR Ward Basket System.

• Q26. Give a brief description of teratogenicity along with an example.

• Q27. What are the strategies to minimize medication errors?

• Q28. Explain radiopharmaceuticals with their applications.

• Q29. What are the benefits and risks associated with total parenteral nutrition?

• Q30. Write briefly about the renal function tests and their significance.

• Q31. Give an overview of pharmacovigilance.

Section-C

Note: Long answer-type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q32. Draw a layout, location, and flowchart of materials and men in a pharmacy.

• Q33. Describe the role of computers in electronic health records and the software used in hospital pharmacy.

• Q34. Give a detailed account of inventory control techniques.

• Q35. Write short notes on any two:

• a) Patient counselling, b) Adverse drug reaction monitoring, c) Medication therapy management

• Q36. Give two examples each of the following:

• a) High-risk drugs, b) Schedule H1 drugs, c) NDPS drugs,

• d) Reserved antibiotics, e) Emergency drugs

• Q37. Give a detailed account of Pulmonary function tests along with their significance.

• Q38. Elaborate on the advantages and disadvantages of the individual prescription order method.

Pharmacy Law and Ethics ER20-26T 2nd Year/ Pharmacy, Time: 3 Hrs. M.M.: 80

SECTION-A Note: Multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory (20x1=20)

• Q.1 List of substances required to be used only under medical supervision is included in the schedule

• a) R b) G c) FF d) C

• Q.2 The safety of the candidate drug in humans is studied in

• a) Phase I b) Phase II c) Phase III d) Phase IV

• Q.3 The Pharmacy Council of India is reconstituted in every

• a) 3 years b) 5 years c) 2 years d) 6 years

• Q.4 Drugs with low absorption numbers have---- permeability

• a) High b) Low c) Moderate d) Both (a) and (c)

• Q.5 The patent for pharmaceuticals must be

• a) Innovative b) Novel c) Beneficial for society d) All

• Q.6 The average lifecycle of drug development from discovery to approval is about

• a) 10 years b) 8 years c) 15 years d) 12 years

• Q.7 A drug intended to treat a condition that affects not more than 5 lakh persons in India

• a) Standard drug b) Orphan drug c) Investigational drug d) New drug

• Q.8 Education regulations in pharmacy are approved by

• a) PCI b) UGC c) WHO d) DCI

• Q.9 Drugs and Magic Remedies Act: Magic came into force in the year

• a) 1935 b) 1948 c) 1930 d) 1955

• Q.10 The government opium factory is situated at

• a) Delhi b) Ranchi c) Ghazipur d) Bathinda

• Q.11 The Poison Act was passed in the year

• a) 1858 b) 1919 c) 1952 d) 1947

• Q.12 The full form of NDA is

• a) New Drug Application b) Novel Drug Approval

• c) Novel Drug Application d) New Drug Authorization

• Q.13 One is not performed by pharmacists in relation to their trade

• a) Price structure b) Hawking of drugs c) Apprentice pharmacist d) Fair trade practice

• Q.14 The prescribed form for consent for termination of pregnancy should be kept in safe custody by CMO in envelopes marked as

• a) Confidential b) Secret c) Reserved d) Supervised

• Q.15 The State Council may appoint a Registrar who may act as

• a) Secretary b) Treasurer c) Vice-president d) Executive member

• Q.16 NDMP stands for

• a) National Disaster Management Plan b) National Disaster Monitoring Plan

• c) Nodal Disaster Management Protocol d) New Disaster Measurement Procedure

• Q.17 Cannabis is prepared in the form of

• a) Ganja b) Hashish c) Charas d) All

• Q.18 Class III medical devices include

• a) Defibrillators b) Pacemakers c) Breast implants d) All

• Q.19 Medical termination of Pregnancy is carried out in

• a) Registered establishments b) Mohalla Clinics c) Community centers d) Veterinary hospitals

• Q.20 Full form of DPCO is

• a) Drug Price Control Order b) Dossier Promotion Control Order

• c) Drug Product Control Order d) Drug Price Control Ordinance

SECTION-B

Note: Short-answer type questions.

Attempt any ten questions out of the eleven questions. (10x3=30)

• Q.21 Define the terms (a) Central Register, (b) Clinical trials.

• Q.22 Outline the distinguishing features between narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.

• Q.23 Discuss the Bio-ethics.

• Q.24 Tell why blood is stored at 4 degrees Celsius?

• Q.25 Interpret the term ‘clinical establishment.

• Q.26 List out the functions of the blood bank.

• Q.27 Discuss the ethics a pharmacist should follow in relation to their trade.

• Q.28 List out the five stages of the Disaster Management cycle.

• Q.29 Outline the objectives of the Consumer Protection Act.

• Q.30 Discuss the labeling of food supplements.

• Q.31 Give the full form of CFR, IPC, and FSSAI

SECTION-C.

Note: Long answer type questions.

Attempt any six questions out of the seven questions. (6x5=30)

• Q.32 Explain the drugs allowed to be imported under a license or permit.

• Q.33 Explain the classification of medical devices with the help of appropriate examples.

• Q.34 How is possession and sale of poisons carried out under the Poison Act 1919?

• Q.35 Explain the conditions and circumstances under which MTP is allowed. List the facilities and personnel required to perform the procedures under the act.

• Q.36 Discuss the Clinical Establishment Act and rules and aspects related to pharmacy.

• Q.37 Explain the role of government pharma bodies in drug regulation.

• Q.38 Summarize the procedure of new drug development.

  Dr Alok Bains