HSBTE MLT IIIrd Sem Question Paper July 24

221933 M.M. : 60 3rd Sem / DMLT, Subject : Applied Clinical Biochemistry

SECTION-A Note: Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (6x1=6)

• Q.1 The bilirubin produced in the spleen and bone marrow diffuses into the blood, binds to _____and transported to the liver.

  a) Fibrinogen b) Potassium c) Albumin d) Globulin

• Q.2 SGOTis estimated by

  a) Evelyn & Malloy method b) DMSO method c) PNPmethod d) Reitman and Frankel's method

• Q.3 The enzyme amylase belongs to the class

  a) Hydrolase b) Isomerase c) Transferase d) Lyases

• Q.4 Maximum levels of acid phosphatase is found in which of the following cells

  a) Myelocytes b) TLymphocytes c) B Lymphocytes d) Monocytes

• Q.5 Which of the following mechanisms contribute to a decrease in plasma calcium concentration? a) The action of vitamin D on the intestine

  b) The action of parathyroid hormone on the intestine

  c) The action of calcitonin on the kidney

  d) The action of parathyroid hormone on the kidney

• Q.6 HDLis called "good" cholesterol because

  a) It keeps cholesterol from building up in the lining of the arteries

  b) Your body makes more of it as you get older

  c) It helps keep your blood from clothing d) None of the above

SECTION-B

Note: Objective/ Completion type questions. All questions are compulsory. (6x1=6)

• Q.7 Expand SGOT.

• Q.8 _______ is estimated by using dimethyl Sulphoxide method.

• Q.9 Define hypocalcemia.

• Q.10 Enlist any two methods for estimation of serum amylase.

• Q.11 Write the reference range of HDL and LDL cholesterol.

• Q.12 Name any two methods for estimation of serum cholesterol.

SECTION-C

Note: Short answer type questions. Attempt any eight questions out of ten questions. (8x4=32)

• Q.13 Schematically explain the formation of bilirubin.

• Q.14 Mention any four differences about direct and indirect bilirubin. Also write the reference values of direct and indirect bilirubin.

• Q.15 Describe the principle of Reitman and Frankel's method for SGOT estimation

• Q.16 Write the clinical significance of ASTdetermination.

• Q.17 Illustrate the procedure of serum amylase estimation.

• Q.18 Write the principle of ALPestimation.

• Q.19 Briefly explain the principle of serum calcium estimation.

• Q.20 Describe the procedure of serum potassium determination.

• Q.21 Mention the importance of various ratios of lipid profile.

• Q.22 Explain the principle of HDLestimation.

• SECTION-D

• Note: Long answer type questions. Attempt any two questions out of three questions. (2x8=16)

• Q.23 Describe the principle, procedure and clinical significance of serum bilirubin estimation.

• Q.24 Illustrate the principle, and procedure for estimation of serum glutamate-pyruvate transaminase.

• Q.25 a) Write the principle of PNP method of acid phosphatase estimation. b) Schematically explain formation of cholesterol in brief.

221932 M.M.: 60 3rd Sem / Branch : DMLT, Subject : Clinical Haematology-I July 24

SECTION-A Note: Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (6x1=6)

• Q.1 Erythrocytes are formed in _______________ . a) RES b) Liver c) Bone marrow d) Intestine

• Q.2 Aggregated mass of erythrocytes is called________. a) Clumping b) Rouleaux c) Shaking d) Agglutination

• Q.3 The unit of MCH is ____________ . a) Picogram b) Gram c) Femtolitre d) Deciliter

• Q.4 Size of reticulocytes are_________Larger than erythrocytes. a) 10% b) 6% c) 8% d) 12%

• Q.5 Vitamin C ________Iron absorption rate. a) Increase b) Decrease c) Destroy d) None of these

• Q.6 Expand MCV. a) Macro corpuscular volume b) Mean corpuscular volume c) Micro corpuscular volume d) Metro corpuscular volume

SECTION-B Note: Objective/ Completion type questions. All questions are compulsory. (6x1=6)

• Q.7 Name any two factors on which ESR depends.

• Q.8 Define the term red cell Fragility.

• Q.9 Write the symptoms of anaemia.

• Q.10 Define LE cell.

• Q.11 Define Rouleaux.

• Q.12 In which anaemia MCH & MCV are high?

SECTION-C Note: Short answer type questions. Attempt any eight questions out of ten questions. (8x4=32)

• Q.13 Write the merits of the various methods of PCV estimation.

• Q.14 Explain haemolysis.

• Q.15 Write the reference range & interpretation of MCV.

• Q.16 Write a short note on iron deficiency anaemia.

• Q.17 Give the lab diagnosis of sickle cell anaemia.

• Q.18 Give the procedure of staining of reticulocytes.

• Q.19 Write the difference between LE cell and Tart cell.

• Q.20 Draw a labelled diagram of wester green's tube.

• Q.21 Define the term MCH, MCHC & MCV.

• Q.22 Write the principle & procedure of supravital strain.

SECTION-D

Note: Long answer type questions. Attempt any two questions out of three questions. (2x8=16)

• Q.24 What is anaemia? Discuss their detailed classification.

• Q.24 Give the principle, procedure & clinical significance of ESR estimation by wintrobe method. Q.25 Give the principle, procedure & interpretation of osmotic fragility test.

221934 M.M. 60 3rd Sem / DMLT, Subject : Histopathology

SECTION-A Note: Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (6x1=6)

• Q.1 The branch of pathology which deals with the study of disease in a cell or tissue is called___________ . a) Histopathology b) Histology c) a & b both d) None

• Q.2 Which of the following can be used as fixatives?

  a) 10% natural buffered formalin b) Bouin's fluid c) Carnoy's fluid d) All of the above

• Q.3 Tissue processing unit is also known as?

  a) Histokinette b) Histomat c) Histobath d) Histoform

• Q.4 The tissue section cutting machine is called______

  a) Histomate b) Microtome c) Microscope d) Histocut

• Q.5 The color of nuclei in MGG staining will be______.

  a) Red b) Blue c) Purple d) Green

• Q.6 CSF stands for_________________

  a) Ceredro spinal fluid b) Cerebro spinal fluid c) Ceredro seminal fluid d) None

SECTION-B Note: Objective/ Completion type questions. All questions are compulsory. (6x1=6)

• Q.7 Define Biopsy.

• Q.8 Expand the term H & E stain

• Q.9 Define fixative.

• Q.10 Define aqueous media?

• Q.11 What do you mean by mitosis?

• Q.12 Name any two types of microtomes.

SECTION-C. Note: Short answer type questions. Attempt any eight questions out of ten questions. (8x4=32)

• Q.13 Explain in detail about unfixed tissue preparation.

• Q.14 Illustrate the process of recording in histology laboratory.

• Q.15 Write down the composition of Heidenhain Susa fluid.

• Q.16 Write a short note on Paraffin embedding.

• Q.17 Explain the working principle of microtome.

• Q.18 Give the advantages and disadvantages of various mounting media.

• Q.19 Differentiate between progressive and regressive staining.

• Q.20 What are the various diseases in human body which can be diagnosed using Exfoliative Cytology Q.21 Explain the different types of mordants in detail.

• Q.22 Write down the procedure for collection of following samples in cytology lab:- a) Urine b) Cerebro Spinal Fluid

SECTION-D, Note: Long answer type questions. Attempt any two questions out of three questions. (2x8=16)

• Q.23 Discuss the disposable blades / knife of microtome with their advantages and disadvantages.

• Q.24 Explain in detail the role of cytotechnician in cytology.

• Q.25 Write short note on: i) Automation in Histpathology ii) Cytological fixatives.

221935 M.M.: 60 3rd Sem / DMLT, Subject : Transfusion Medicine

SECTION-A Note: Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (6x1=6)

• Q.1 Antibodies are . a) Prostaglandins b) Steroids c) Lipoproteins d) Glycoprotein

• Q.2 Which of the following blood group is considered as universal donor ? a) A b) B c) AB d) O

• Q.3 The full form of ACD___________________ . a) Anticoagulant citrate dextrose b) Anticoagulant Chemical dextrose c) Anticoagulant Clotting dextrose d) None of the above

• Q.4 Rh antibodies are_________________ . a) Natural antibodies b) Immune antibodies c) Both d) None

• Q.5 In minor cross matching? a) Patient's cell mixed with donor serum b) Donor cell mixed with patient's serum c) Both d) None

• Q.6 Cryoprecipitate contain? a) Factor VIII b) Factor XIII c) Von willebrand factor d) All

SECTION-B Note: Objective/ Completion type questions. All questions are compulsory. (6x1=6)

• Q.7 Expand HIV?

• Q.8 What is meant by cross matching?

• Q.9 Define antigen?

• Q.10 Write the two types of cross matching?

• Q.11 Write the composition of CPD anticoagulant?

• Q.12 Define blood transfusion reaction

SECTION-C Note: Short answer type questions. Attempt any eight questions out of ten. (8x4=32)

• Q.13 Define antibody and draw the structure of antibody.

• Q.14 Write about tube, test for performing ABO blood grouping.

• Q.15 Tabulate various anticoagulants and their composition.

• Q.16 Write the advantages and disadvantages of EDTA.

• Q.17 Describe briefly about the classification of antigen on the basis of origin and specificity.

• Q.18 Outline the principle and procedure for indirect Coomb's test.

• Q.19 Write any four characteristics of ideal blood donor.

• Q.20 Explain the procedure for collection of the blood.

• Q.21 Outline the preparation, preservation and uses of fresh frozen plasma.

• Q.22 Write a note Rh grouping.

SECTION-D. Note: Long answer type questions. Attempt any two questions out of three questions. (2x8=16)

• Q.23 Describe about different types of cross matching.

• Q.24 Give a detailed note on ABO blood grouping system.

• Q.25 Describe about the different kind of blood transfusion reactions. Explain in details.

221931 Subject: Parasitology and Virology M.M. : 60 3rd Sem/DMLT, July 24

SECTION-A Note: Multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory (6x1=6)

• Q.1 Male ascaris differs from the female in__________ .

• a) Pineal spicules b) Tail c) Lips d) None of these

• Q.2 Which of the following human disease is transmitted from the vector anopheles mosquito? a) Dengue b) Malaria c) Filaria d) Encephalitis

• Q.3 Avirus is made up of_______________ . a) Protein coat and nucleic acid b) Protein coat and Mitochondria c) Nucleic acid and cell Membrane d) Nucleic acid, cell Wall

• Q.4 Hookworm infection may lead to: a) Anemia b) Ground itch c) Creeping eruption d) All of the above

• Q.5 Protozoa are classified on the basis of __________ . a) Locomotory organelle b) Shape c) Number of nuclei d) Size

• Q.6 What is the primary mode of transmission of covid19 ? a) Air - borne b) Vector - borne c) Contact d) Water - borne

SECTION-B Note: Objective/ Completion type questions. All questions are compulsory. (6x1=6)

• Q.7 Expand the term HBV and HIV.

• Q.8 Define VTM.

• Q.9 Name the disease caused by entamoeba histolytica .

• Q.10 The trophozoites Giardia are_______shaped.

• Q.11 What is an intermediate host?

• Q.12 The carrier of malaria parasite is __________ .

SECTION-C Note: Short answer type questions. Attempt any eight questions out of ten questions. (8x4=32)

• Q.13 Write the procedure to collect the blood sample.

Ans: The following three methods are used to collect blood samples.

• 1. Vein puncture (Venipuncture or Phlebotomy)

• 2. Finger prick

• 3. Heel prick

• Vein Puncture (Venipuncture or phlebotomy) method: The following steps are followed to withdraw blood sample by venipuncture method.

• 1. Gathering of supplies: The followings are gathered: Sterile needle and syringe, vacuum sealed blood collection tubes, alcohol swabs, tourniquet, cotton balls or gauze pads, adhesive bandages, gloves and antiseptic solution such as 70% alcohol, etc.

• · Preparation of the patient: Locate suitable arm vein after patient’s consent.

• 2. Hand hygiene: Thoroughly wash your hand using soap and water. Put on gloves to maintain sterile condition.

• 3. Apply a tourniquet: Apply tourniquet several inches above the vein puncture site. This restricts the blood flow and makes veins more prominent. Tourniquet should not be applied for more than 1-2 minutes. Sphygmomanometer cuff is also used in place of tourniquet.

• 4. Puncture Site sanitization: Clean the puncture site using suitable antiseptic swab.

• 5. Vein selection: The median cuboital vein in the antecubital fossa (inner elbow area) is most commonly used to withdraw blood sample.

• 6. Vein puncture: Instruct patient to make a fist. Prominent vein will appear in antecuboital fossa (inner elbow area). Select proper vein and insert needle into vein. Angle of needle should be in between 15 and 30 degrees.

• 7. Blood collection: Withdraw the piston of syringe slowly. Blood will flow into syringe.

• 8. Tourniquet removal: Release the tourniquet quickly just after blood start to flow into syringe/collection tube.

• 9. Remove syringe gently after collection of required volume of blood. Instruct patient to release fist. Place cotton ball swab or gauge pad swab on the puncture site.

• 10. Label the container have blood sample.

• Q.14 Describe the general characteristics of helminths.

• Q.15 Explain the life cycle of T. saginta.

Ans: Life cycle of T. saginata (Tapeworm)

• Life cycle of Tapeworm is complex and involves multiple hosts. Human and carnivorous animals are the definitive hosts (primary hosts) of the T. saginata (Tapeworm). Pigs and herbivorous animals are the Intermediate hosts (Secondary hosts) of the T. saginata (Tapeworm).

• 1. Egg: Life cycle of Tapeworm begins with the egg. These eggs are excreted from the host body with stool.

• 2. Intermediate host: Herbivrous animals such as cow are the intermediate host of the Tapeworm. Tapeworm eggs enter their body with the contaminated water and vegetation.

• 3. Larva development: Tapeworm eggs release larva inside intermediate host body. These larvae are called Oncospheres. Onchospheres penetrate the intestinal wall of the intermediate host and migrate to various tissues of heart, lungs, and muscular tissues. Inside tissue they form fluid filled cysts called cysticerci.

• 4. Definitive host infection: Carnivorous animals and humans are the definitive host of the Tapeworm. Definitive hosts get infection after consuming raw or undercooked meat (intermediate host) containing cycticerci.

• 5. Adult Tapeworm: Cycticerci develop into adult Tapeworm inside intestine of the definitive hosts. They attach to the intestine wall by using scolex (Head). They grow into segmented body. Each segment is called proglottids. Tapeworm is hermaphrodite. Both sexes are in the same body. Each proglottid has both sex organs. Proglottids continuously produce eggs.

• 6. Eggs release: Mature proglottids containing eggs are at the end of Tapeworm body.

• Q.16 Write the difference between virus and cells.

• Q.17 Describe the life cycle of giardia.

Ans: Life cycle of Giardia

• There are two stages in the life cycle of the Giardia: Trophozoite stage and Cyst stage.

• 1. Trophozoite stage: Trophozoites are active, motile form of the Giardia. It enters into host body with infected water or food. It enters host intestine quickly. One Giardia trophozoite produces two trophozoites by asexual reproduction inside intestine of infected host.

• 2. Cyst stage: Inside large intestine, Giardia trophozoite develop thick wall around it to form cyst. Cyst has two Giardia cells. Cysts are excreted out from the host body with stool. Giardia cysts contaminate soil, water and food.

• 3. Transmission of infection: Ingestion of food contaminated with Giardia cyst develops giardiasis in infected host. Inside duodenum and jejunum of the host, it develops Giardia trophozoites.

• Q.18 Explain the various portals of entry of parasites into the body.

• Q.19 Differentiate between ova and cyst.

• Q.20 Write the morphology of p. falciparum.

Ans: Morphology of Plasmodium falciparurm

The followings are the stages of Plasmodium falciparurm development in host cells.

• In the Human host (Secondary host)

• Inside female anopheles’ mosquito (Primary host)

• Sporozoites

  • · Inside human liver (Tissue phase)

  • Pre-erythrocytic Schizonts.

  • ·Inside human RBCs (Erythrocytic phase)

• Erythrocytic Schizonts.

• Gametocytes.

• Sporozoites

• Morphology of Malaria Sporozoite: It is thread like structure with pointed anterior end and round posterior end. Pointed anterior end has secretion to help in penetration into liver cells of human. It has small amount of cytoplasm. It has elongated nucleus in the centre of sporozoite.

• Morphology of Malaria Pre-erythrocytic Schizont: It is small and round structure. Diameter varies up to 10 micrometers. It has cytoplasm surrounded by plasma membrane with one nucleus in the centre. Inside nucleus several nuclei are present.

• Morphology of Malaria erythrocytic schizont: Size of erythrocytic schizont is larger than pre-erytrhocytic schizont. It contains multiple nuclei and organelles in the granular cytoplasm. Cytoplasm contains dark brown or black pigment. Mature nucleus in schizonts form merozoites. Rapture of schizonts release merozoites. Merozoites invade other RBC.

• Morphology of Malaria gametocytes: Malaria gametocytes are the sexual form of malaria parasites. Their morphology depends upon their development stage.

  • · Stage I: Gametocytes appear round or oval at the early stage, diameter 5 to 8 micrometer. They have pale cytoplasm and one nucleus. Gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax are smaller than plasmodium falciparum.

  • · Stage II: It is intermediate stage. It has large size than stage I gametocyte. It has a pigment called “chromatin dot”. Cytoplasm is darker and more granular. Gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax are smaller than plasmodium falciparum.

  • · Stage III: It is late stage. It is larger and elongated than stage II gametocyte. More prominent and elongated chromatin dot. It has banana shape. Gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax gametocytes are less banana shape than plasmodium falciparum.

  • · Stage IV: It is mature gametocyte. It is further elongated and banana shape. More condense cytoplasm and more prominent chromatin dot. Gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax gametocytes are less banana shape than plasmodium falciparum.

• Q.21 Explain the lab investigation of HBV in details.

• Q.22 Describe the method of identification of HEV virus.

SECTION-D Note: Long answer type questions. Attempt any two questions out of three questions. (2x8=16)

• Q.23 Write in detail the laboratory diagnosis of parasites infections.

• Q.24 a) Draw the life cycle of P. falciparum. b) Describe the morphology of ancylostoma.

• Q.25 E x p l a i n t h e p a t h o g e n i c i t y , l a b d i a g n o s i s a n d prevention of corona virus.

Dr Pramila Singh